Nursing Elites

1. The nurse administers a booster dose of DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis) vaccine to an infant. Which level of prevention is the nurse implementing?

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Tertiary prevention.
• C. Secondary prevention.
• D. Primary nursing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Administering a booster dose of DTaP vaccine to an infant is an example of primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent disease or injury before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Tertiary prevention focuses on reducing the impact of a disease or injury that has already occurred, while secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment to prevent the progression of disease. Choice B, tertiary prevention, is incorrect as it deals with managing the consequences of a disease rather than preventing it. Choice C, secondary prevention, is also incorrect as it focuses on early detection and treatment rather than vaccination to prevent the disease. Choice D, primary nursing, is unrelated to the level of prevention being implemented in this scenario.

2. What is the process of enabling people to increase control over and improve their health known as?

• A. Health promotion
• B. Disease prevention
• C. Rehabilitation
• D. Health education

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Health promotion. Health promotion focuses on empowering individuals to take control of their health by promoting healthy behaviors, lifestyles, and environments. It aims to prevent illnesses and enhance overall well-being. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not fully encompass the concept of empowering individuals to improve their health. Disease prevention specifically targets avoiding specific illnesses, rehabilitation focuses on restoring health after an illness or injury, and health education primarily involves imparting knowledge about health-related topics.

3. Community organizing is an important part of the community nursing function. Given the following elements: choosing an organizational structure, identifying and recruiting members, defining mission, vision, and goals, clarifying roles and responsibilities; at which stage do these elements belong?

• A. Program maintenance-consolidation
• B. Dissemination-Reassessment
• C. Community Analysis/diagnosis
• D. Design and initiation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Design and initiation. These elements such as choosing an organizational structure, identifying and recruiting members, defining mission, vision, and goals, and clarifying roles and responsibilities belong to the design and initiation stage of community organizing. This stage focuses on setting up the foundation and structure of the community organization. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Program maintenance-consolidation refers to maintaining and strengthening existing programs, not establishing new ones; B) Dissemination-Reassessment involves spreading information and evaluating programs already in place; C) Community Analysis/diagnosis is about assessing community needs and identifying issues, not about setting up the initial structure.

4. A 14-month-old had cleft palate surgical repair several days ago. The parents ask the nurse about feedings after discharge. Which lunch is the best example of an appropriate meal?

• A. Hot dog, carrot sticks, gelatin, milk
• B. Soup, blenderized soft foods, ice cream, milk
• C. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich, chips, pudding, milk
• D. Baked chicken, applesauce, cookie, milk

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B, 'Soup, blenderized soft foods, ice cream, milk,' is the correct answer. After cleft palate repair, it is essential to provide soft and blenderized foods to prevent trauma to the surgical site and promote proper healing. Choices A, C, and D contain foods that may be difficult for the child to consume comfortably and safely after a cleft palate surgical repair. A hot dog, carrot sticks, chips, and hard cookies could potentially cause injury or discomfort to the surgical area. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich might be too difficult to swallow or may stick to the surgical site. Baked chicken could be too challenging to chew. Therefore, the best choice for an appropriate meal post cleft palate repair is soft, blenderized foods like soup, along with other soft options like ice cream and milk.

5. A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving baclofen (Lioresal). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Muscle spasms
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Drowsiness. Baclofen, a muscle relaxant commonly used to treat conditions like multiple sclerosis, can cause drowsiness as a side effect. Monitoring for drowsiness is important to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because baclofen is not known to cause hypertension. Choice B, Muscle spasms, is not a common side effect of baclofen but rather the symptom it is used to treat. Choice D, Tachycardia, is also incorrect as baclofen is not associated with causing an increase in heart rate.

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