Nursing Elites

1. The nurse administers a booster dose of DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis) vaccine to an infant. Which level of prevention is the nurse implementing?

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Tertiary prevention.
• C. Secondary prevention.
• D. Primary nursing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Administering a booster dose of DTaP vaccine to an infant is an example of primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent disease or injury before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Tertiary prevention focuses on reducing the impact of a disease or injury that has already occurred, while secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment to prevent the progression of disease. Choice B, tertiary prevention, is incorrect as it deals with managing the consequences of a disease rather than preventing it. Choice C, secondary prevention, is also incorrect as it focuses on early detection and treatment rather than vaccination to prevent the disease. Choice D, primary nursing, is unrelated to the level of prevention being implemented in this scenario.

2. What is the main focus of secondary prevention?

• A. Early detection and treatment
• B. Rehabilitation
• C. Health promotion
• D. Palliative care

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The main focus of secondary prevention is early detection and treatment of disease. This approach aims to identify health conditions in their early stages when they are easier to treat or manage effectively. Choice B, rehabilitation, is more aligned with restoring function after an illness or injury has occurred. Choice C, health promotion, concentrates on educating and empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to prevent the onset of diseases. Choice D, palliative care, is focused on providing comfort and improving the quality of life for individuals with serious illnesses or at the end of life, rather than on early detection and treatment.

3. A 16-year-old female client returns to the clinic because she is pregnant for the third time by a new boyfriend. Which vaccine should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Measles-mumps-rubella.
• B. Hepatitis B.
• C. Human papillomavirus.
• D. Pneumococcal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hepatitis B. The Hepatitis B vaccine is crucial for pregnant women as it helps prevent transmission of the virus to the baby during childbirth. Measles-mumps-rubella vaccine (choice A) is not directly related to the current situation of the client being pregnant. Human papillomavirus vaccine (choice C) is recommended for adolescents but is not specifically indicated in this case. Pneumococcal vaccine (choice D) is not a priority in this scenario compared to Hepatitis B, which is crucial for preventing vertical transmission.

4. What action is best for the community health nurse to take if the nurse suspects that an infant is being physically abused?

• A. Follow agency protocols to report suspected abuse.
• B. Report suspicions to the local child abuse reporting hotline.
• C. Educate the child's caregivers about growth and development issues.
• D. Call the police department to have the child removed from the home.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a community health nurse suspects that an infant is being physically abused, the best course of action is to follow agency protocols to report the suspected abuse. This is essential to ensure that the appropriate authorities are informed, and proper interventions can be initiated. Reporting suspicions to the local child abuse reporting hotline (Choice B) can be a part of the agency protocols but may not cover all necessary steps. Educating the child's caregivers about growth and development (Choice C) is not appropriate in cases of suspected abuse, as the immediate focus should be on the safety and well-being of the infant. Calling the police department to have the child removed from the home (Choice D) is not the primary role of the nurse; the proper authorities should handle the removal process after an investigation.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving insulin glargine (Lantus). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin used to control blood sugar levels in diabetes. The nurse should monitor the client for hypoglycemia, which is a potential side effect of insulin therapy. Hypoglycemia occurs when blood sugar levels drop too low, leading to symptoms such as shakiness, dizziness, sweating, confusion, and in severe cases, loss of consciousness. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is an elevated potassium level, not typically associated with insulin glargine. Hypertension (choice C) is high blood pressure, which is not a common side effect of insulin glargine. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is an elevated calcium level and is not related to the use of insulin glargine.

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