Nursing Elites

1. As the immediate supervisor of the Rural Health Midwives, the PHN prepares a supervisory plan. Which of the following would be the PHN's activity?

• A. performing needs assessment
• B. listing supervisory activities
• C. identifying the training needs
• D. formulating objectives for supervision

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: listing supervisory activities. When preparing a supervisory plan, the Public Health Nurse (PHN) needs to list the specific supervisory activities that need to be carried out. This helps in organizing and outlining the tasks that need to be accomplished to ensure effective supervision. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because although needs assessment, identifying training needs, and formulating objectives are important aspects of supervisory planning, they are not specifically related to the act of preparing a detailed list of supervisory activities.

2. The nurse is reviewing a depressed client's history from an earlier admission. Documentation of anhedonia is noted. The nurse understands that this finding refers to:

• A. Reports of difficulty falling and staying asleep
• B. Expression of persistent suicidal thoughts
• C. Lack of enjoyment in usual pleasures
• D. Reduced senses of taste and smell

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lack of enjoyment in usual pleasures. Anhedonia is the inability to feel pleasure in normally pleasurable activities. Choice A, reports of difficulty falling and staying asleep, is more indicative of insomnia rather than anhedonia. Choice B, expression of persistent suicidal thoughts, is related to suicidal ideation and not anhedonia. Choice D, reduced senses of taste and smell, is more associated with disturbances in the sense of taste and smell, not anhedonia.

3. An activity designed to diagnose and treat a disease or condition in its earliest stages, before it becomes full-blown, would be classified as:

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. health education

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, secondary prevention. Secondary prevention focuses on early diagnosis and intervention to prevent the progression of a disease or condition. This involves detecting and treating the illness in its early stages to reduce its impact. Choice A, primary prevention, aims to prevent the development of a disease or injury before it occurs by promoting healthy behaviors. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and improving the quality of life of individuals with established conditions to prevent complications and further deterioration. Choice D, health education, refers to providing information and promoting awareness about health issues to enable individuals to make informed decisions and adopt healthy behaviors.

4. A home health nurse knows that a 70-year-old male client who is convalescing at home following a hip replacement is at risk for developing decubitus ulcers. Which physical characteristic of aging contributes to such a risk?

• A. 16% increase in overall body fat.
• B. Reduced melanin production.
• C. Thinning of the skin with loss of elasticity.
• D. Calcium loss in the bones.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thinning of the skin with loss of elasticity is the physical characteristic of aging that contributes to an increased risk of developing decubitus ulcers. As individuals age, the skin becomes thinner and loses its elasticity, making it more susceptible to damage from pressure, leading to the formation of pressure ulcers. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly contribute to the development of decubitus ulcers in this context.

5. Certain health policies/strategies serve as guidelines in the delivery of services. Which of these is incorrect?

• A. A growth monitoring chart is a tool recommended for assessing and recording the child's health condition.
• B. Voluntary blood donation should be promoted through the organization of walking blood banks in rural areas.
• C. Public sectors should collaborate with the private sector for effective utilization of resources.
• D. Traditional birth attendants should be trained and allowed to provide prenatal care to mothers.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is incorrect because public sectors are encouraged to collaborate with the private sector for effective utilization of resources, not work separately. Collaborating with the private sector can lead to improved resource allocation, better service delivery, and enhanced healthcare outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are correct as growth monitoring charts are indeed recommended for assessing child health, promoting voluntary blood donation through walking blood banks is beneficial, and training traditional birth attendants to provide prenatal care can improve maternal health.

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