being the immediate supervisor of the rural health midwives the phn prepares a supervisory plan which of the following would be the phns activity
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Exam

1. As the immediate supervisor of the Rural Health Midwives, the PHN prepares a supervisory plan. Which of the following would be the PHN's activity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: listing supervisory activities. When preparing a supervisory plan, the Public Health Nurse (PHN) needs to list the specific supervisory activities that need to be carried out. This helps in organizing and outlining the tasks that need to be accomplished to ensure effective supervision. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because although needs assessment, identifying training needs, and formulating objectives are important aspects of supervisory planning, they are not specifically related to the act of preparing a detailed list of supervisory activities.

2. A home health nurse knows that a 70-year-old male client who is convalescing at home following a hip replacement is at risk for developing decubitus ulcers. Which physical characteristic of aging contributes to such a risk?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thinning of the skin with loss of elasticity is the physical characteristic of aging that contributes to an increased risk of developing decubitus ulcers. As individuals age, the skin becomes thinner and loses its elasticity, making it more susceptible to damage from pressure, leading to the formation of pressure ulcers. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly contribute to the development of decubitus ulcers in this context.

3. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. The nurse knows that the client's risk for withdrawal symptoms is greatest within:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 12-24 hours. Withdrawal symptoms typically begin within 12-24 hours after the last drink. This period is when the client is at the highest risk for experiencing withdrawal symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the typical timeline for alcohol withdrawal symptoms to manifest. Symptoms usually peak within the first 24 to 48 hours after the last drink, making the 12-24 hour window critical for monitoring and managing any potential withdrawal complications.

4. A 15-year-old client with a lengthy confining illness is at risk for altered growth and development of which task?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A 15-year-old client with a lengthy confining illness is at risk for altered growth and development of the task of dependence. Prolonged illness and confinement can lead to the development of dependence as the individual may become reliant on others for their care and needs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect in this context. Loss of control, insecurity, and lack of trust are important factors to consider but are not directly related to the altered growth and development task of dependence due to illness and confinement.

5. The nurse is administering the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 12-month-old child during the well-baby visit. Which age range should the nurse advise the parents to plan for their child to receive the MMR booster based on the current recommendations and guidelines by the Center for Disease Control (CDC)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4 to 6 years of age. The CDC recommends the MMR booster for children in this age group. Choice A (13 to 18 years of age) is incorrect as it is not the recommended age range for the MMR booster. Choice B (11 to 12 years of age) is also incorrect as it does not align with the CDC guidelines for the MMR booster. Choice C (18 to 24 months of age) is not the correct age range for the MMR booster according to CDC recommendations.

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