being the immediate supervisor of the rural health midwives the phn prepares a supervisory plan which of the following would be the phns activity
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HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Exam

1. As the immediate supervisor of the Rural Health Midwives, the PHN prepares a supervisory plan. Which of the following would be the PHN's activity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: listing supervisory activities. When preparing a supervisory plan, the Public Health Nurse (PHN) needs to list the specific supervisory activities that need to be carried out. This helps in organizing and outlining the tasks that need to be accomplished to ensure effective supervision. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because although needs assessment, identifying training needs, and formulating objectives are important aspects of supervisory planning, they are not specifically related to the act of preparing a detailed list of supervisory activities.

2. In planning the use of resources for secondary prevention in a community clinic serving migrant families, which activity should be the priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Skin testing for tuberculosis. In a community clinic serving migrant families, tuberculosis is a significant health concern due to close living conditions and potential exposure during migration. Skin testing for tuberculosis is crucial for secondary prevention as it helps in early detection and prevention of the spread of the disease within the community. Choices B, C, and D are important health screenings but may not be the priority in this specific population where tuberculosis poses a higher risk.

3. During a visit to the community health clinic, a 45-year-old Native American female, who has a BMI of 35, complains of changes in her vision. Which condition is most important for the RN to be aware of in the client's family history?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diabetes. Given the client's Native American ethnicity, high BMI, and vision changes, diabetes is the most crucial condition for the nurse to be aware of in the client's family history. Diabetes is strongly associated with vision problems, especially diabetic retinopathy. Glaucoma (choice B) is a condition that affects the optic nerve and can lead to vision loss but is not as directly linked to the client's BMI and ethnic background. Hypertension (choice C) can also impact vision, but in this case, diabetes takes precedence based on the client's profile. Brain tumor (choice D) is less likely to be related to the client's BMI, ethnicity, and vision changes compared to diabetes.

4. When assessing a newborn infant with low set ears, short palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge, and an indistinct philtrum, a priority maternal assessment by the nurse should be to ask about

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcohol use during pregnancy. The physical features mentioned are indicative of fetal alcohol syndrome, a condition caused by maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy. It is crucial for the nurse to inquire about alcohol use as it can help in diagnosing and managing the infant's condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with the physical findings described in the newborn, which specifically point towards a potential history of alcohol exposure during pregnancy.

5. What is the measure of the number of new cases of a disease in a specific population during a certain time period called?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Incidence. Incidence refers to the number of new cases of a disease in a specific population during a certain time period. Prevalence (choice A) refers to the total number of cases of a disease in a population at a specific point in time. Mortality rate (choice C) is the measure of the number of deaths in a particular population due to a specific cause. Morbidity rate (choice D) is a broader term that encompasses the incidence and prevalence of a disease in a population.

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