being the immediate supervisor of the rural health midwives the phn prepares a supervisory plan which of the following would be the phns activity
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Exam

1. As the immediate supervisor of the Rural Health Midwives, the PHN prepares a supervisory plan. Which of the following would be the PHN's activity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: listing supervisory activities. When preparing a supervisory plan, the Public Health Nurse (PHN) needs to list the specific supervisory activities that need to be carried out. This helps in organizing and outlining the tasks that need to be accomplished to ensure effective supervision. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because although needs assessment, identifying training needs, and formulating objectives are important aspects of supervisory planning, they are not specifically related to the act of preparing a detailed list of supervisory activities.

2. A client comes into the community health center upset and crying stating, “I will die of cancer now that I have this disease.” And then the client hands the nurse a paper with one word written on it: 'Pheochromocytoma.' Which response should the nurse state initially?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct initial response for the nurse to provide in this situation is to offer reassurance. Stating that 'Pheochromocytomas usually aren't cancerous (malignant)' helps to alleviate the client's anxiety and fear of having cancer. This response also establishes a foundation for further discussion about the condition, allowing the nurse to address the client's concerns and provide accurate information. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses solely on the diagnostic tests for pheochromocytoma but does not address the client's emotional distress. Choice C is incorrect as it discusses imaging modalities without directly addressing the client's concerns. Choice D is also incorrect as it assumes symptoms without first addressing the client's emotional state and fear of cancer.

3. The nurse is assigned to a newly delivered woman with HIV/AIDS. The student asks the nurse about how it is determined that a person has AIDS other than a positive HIV test. The nurse responds:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A CD4 count less than 200 cells/mm³ is a diagnostic criterion for AIDS. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is vague and does not reflect the diagnostic criteria for AIDS. Choice B is not accurate, as the presence of opportunistic infections, not their absence, is indicative of AIDS. Choice D is unrelated to the diagnosis of AIDS in adults.

4. The nurse is caring for a child with cystic fibrosis. The nurse would anticipate that the child would be deficient in which vitamins?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Children with cystic fibrosis often have difficulty absorbing fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, and K) due to pancreatic insufficiency, making supplementation necessary. Choice A (B, D, and K) is incorrect because vitamin A deficiency is not commonly associated with cystic fibrosis. Choice C (A, C, and D) is incorrect as vitamin C deficiency is not typically related to cystic fibrosis. Choice D (A, B, and C) is incorrect as vitamin B deficiencies are not commonly seen in cystic fibrosis but rather fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies.

5. An infant weighed 7 pounds 8 ounces at birth. If growth occurs at a normal rate, what would be the expected weight at 6 months of age?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Double the birth weight.' Infants typically double their birth weight by 6 months of age. This is a common milestone in healthy infant growth and development. Choice B is incorrect because tripling the birth weight would be excessive and not in line with normal growth patterns. Choice C, 'Gain 6 ounces each week,' is not accurate as infant growth is not linear each week. Choice D, 'Add 2 pounds each month,' is also incorrect as this rate of growth would be too rapid and unrealistic for healthy infant development.

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