Nursing Elites

1. As the immediate supervisor of the Rural Health Midwives, the PHN prepares a supervisory plan. Which of the following would be the PHN's activity?

• A. performing needs assessment
• B. listing supervisory activities
• C. identifying the training needs
• D. formulating objectives for supervision

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: listing supervisory activities. When preparing a supervisory plan, the Public Health Nurse (PHN) needs to list the specific supervisory activities that need to be carried out. This helps in organizing and outlining the tasks that need to be accomplished to ensure effective supervision. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because although needs assessment, identifying training needs, and formulating objectives are important aspects of supervisory planning, they are not specifically related to the act of preparing a detailed list of supervisory activities.

2. Which one of the following statements, if made by the client, indicates teaching about Inderal (propranolol) has been effective?

• A. ''I may experience seizures if I stop the medication abruptly.''
• B. ''I may experience an increase in my heart rate for a few weeks.''
• C. ''I can expect to feel nervousness the first few weeks.''
• D. ''I can have a heart attack if I stop this medication suddenly.''

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Stopping Inderal (propranolol) abruptly can cause rebound hypertension, angina, and even a myocardial infarction (heart attack), so it is crucial to taper off the medication under medical supervision. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the serious consequences associated with abrupt discontinuation of propranolol.

3. A client tells the nurse he is fearful of planned surgery because of evil thoughts about a family member. What is the best initial response by the nurse?

• A. Call a chaplain
• B. Deny the feelings
• C. Cite recovery statistics
• D. Listen to the client

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to listen to the client. Listening allows the nurse to establish therapeutic communication, understand the client's fears and concerns, provide emotional support, and help alleviate anxiety. Calling a chaplain (Choice A) may be appropriate if the client requests spiritual support but should not be the initial response. Denying the feelings (Choice B) is dismissive and can hinder trust and communication. Citing recovery statistics (Choice C) is irrelevant and does not address the client's immediate emotional needs.

4. What title should be given to this occupational health nurse job description? A registered nurse with expertise in health promotion, illness and injury prevention, risk reduction, and adult learning principles.

• A. case manager
• B. health educator
• C. nurse consultant
• D. health promotion specialist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: health promotion specialist.' This title aligns with the described expertise in health promotion, illness and injury prevention, and risk reduction. A health promotion specialist focuses on promoting health and preventing illnesses, which directly corresponds to the skills mentioned in the job description. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A 'case manager' typically focuses on coordinating patient care, 'health educator' specifically emphasizes educating individuals on health topics, and a 'nurse consultant' offers expert advice and support in the nursing field but may not specialize in health promotion and risk reduction as required in this job description.

5. The nurse is assigned to a newly delivered woman with HIV/AIDS. The student asks the nurse about how it is determined that a person has AIDS other than a positive HIV test. The nurse responds:

• A. The complaints of at least 3 common findings.
• B. The absence of any opportunistic infection.
• C. CD4 lymphocyte count is less than 200.
• D. Developmental delays in children.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A CD4 count less than 200 cells/mm³ is a diagnostic criterion for AIDS. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is vague and does not reflect the diagnostic criteria for AIDS. Choice B is not accurate, as the presence of opportunistic infections, not their absence, is indicative of AIDS. Choice D is unrelated to the diagnosis of AIDS in adults.

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