being the immediate supervisor of the rural health midwives the phn prepares a supervisory plan which of the following would be the phns activity
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Exam

1. As the immediate supervisor of the Rural Health Midwives, the PHN prepares a supervisory plan. Which of the following would be the PHN's activity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: listing supervisory activities. When preparing a supervisory plan, the Public Health Nurse (PHN) needs to list the specific supervisory activities that need to be carried out. This helps in organizing and outlining the tasks that need to be accomplished to ensure effective supervision. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because although needs assessment, identifying training needs, and formulating objectives are important aspects of supervisory planning, they are not specifically related to the act of preparing a detailed list of supervisory activities.

2. The nurse is assessing a 12-year-old who has Hemophilia A. Which finding would the nurse anticipate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: A deficiency of clotting factor VIII. Hemophilia A is characterized by a lack of clotting factor VIII, which is crucial for blood clotting. This deficiency results in prolonged bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. There is no association between Hemophilia A and an excess of red blood cells (Choice A) or an excess of white blood cells (Choice B). Additionally, Hemophilia A specifically involves a deficiency of clotting factor VIII, not both factors VIII and IX (Choice D).

3. At a nursing staff meeting, there is a discussion of perceived inequities in weekend staff assignments. As a follow-up, what should the nurse manager do initially?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Facilitating creative thinking on staffing is the most appropriate initial action for the nurse manager in addressing perceived inequities in weekend staff assignments. By encouraging creative thinking, the manager promotes innovative solutions and fosters a sense of ownership and collaboration among staff members. Choices A, B, and C are not the best initial steps in this situation. Allowing staff to change assignments may not address the underlying issues, clarifying reasons for current assignments may not resolve perceived inequities, and helping staff see the complexity of issues may not lead to actionable solutions.

4. Which of the following measures the risk of dying from causes related to pregnancy, childbirth, and puerperium?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, maternal mortality. Maternal mortality specifically measures the risk of dying from pregnancy-related causes. Neonatal death rate, fetal death rate, and infant mortality rate focus on different populations and timeframes. Neonatal death rate refers to deaths within the first 28 days of life, fetal death rate measures stillbirths, and infant mortality rate includes deaths of infants under one year of age. Therefore, A is the most appropriate measure for assessing the risk of dying from causes related to pregnancy, childbirth, and puerperium.

5. A client with peptic ulcer disease is receiving ranitidine (Zantac). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diarrhea. Ranitidine, which is used to treat peptic ulcer disease, can lead to gastrointestinal disturbances such as diarrhea. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension and hypotension are not common side effects of ranitidine. Constipation is also not a typical side effect associated with ranitidine use.

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