HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024
1. In which type of cardiomyopathy does septal involvement occur?
- A. Congestive
- B. Dilated
- C. Hypertrophic
- D. Restrictive
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Septal involvement is a characteristic feature of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, where the septal wall of the heart thickens. This thickening can obstruct blood flow out of the heart, leading to complications such as arrhythmias and heart failure. This differentiates it from other types of cardiomyopathy. In congestive cardiomyopathy (choice A), the heart's chambers become enlarged and weakened, but there is no specific mention of septal involvement. Dilated cardiomyopathy (choice B) involves dilation and impaired contraction of the heart chambers, not specifically septal thickening. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice D) is characterized by stiffening of the heart muscle, affecting its ability to fill properly, without direct involvement of the septum.
2. The PN is reviewing instructions for the use of pilocarpine eye drops with a client who has glaucoma. The client replies that the drops are used to anesthetize the eye if eye pain is experienced. What action should the PN implement?
- A. Document in the chart that the client understands the correct action and use of eye drops
- B. Reassure the client that the drops will not be needed often since eye pain in glaucoma is not common
- C. Reteach the client about the action of the eye drops to decrease pressure in the eyes
- D. Explain to the client that the eye drops do not anesthetize the eyes but reduce pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pilocarpine eye drops are used to reduce intraocular pressure in glaucoma, not to anesthetize the eye. The PN should reteach the client about the purpose of the medication to ensure proper use and understanding, which is crucial for effective treatment. Choice A is incorrect because just documenting understanding without addressing the client's misconception is not enough. Choice B is incorrect as it provides incorrect information about the purpose of the eye drops and may lead to further misunderstanding. Choice D is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information stating that the drops provide pain relief, which is not their primary purpose.
3. While caring for a client with an AV fistula in the left forearm, the nurse observed a palpable buzzing sensation over the fistula. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Loosen the dressing of the fistula
- B. Report the presence of a bounding pulse
- C. Document that the fistula is intact
- D. Apply gentle pressure over the site
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Document that the fistula is intact. The palpable buzzing sensation (known as a thrill) over the AV fistula indicates proper functioning. It is essential for the nurse to document this finding to ensure ongoing monitoring of the fistula's status. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication to loosen the dressing. Choice B is incorrect as a bounding pulse is not associated with the palpable buzzing sensation of a thrill. Choice D is incorrect as applying pressure over the site is not necessary for this situation.
4. The nurse enters a male client's room to administer routine morning medications, and the client is on the phone. Which action is best for the nurse to take?
- A. Ask another nurse to return with the medication when the client has hung up the phone
- B. Wait for the client to excuse himself from the telephone conversation, and observe the client taking the medication
- C. Return the medication to the client's drawer on the cart and document that the client refused the dose
- D. Leave the medication with the client and let him take it when he finishes the conversation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best action for the nurse to take in this situation is to wait for the client to excuse himself from the telephone conversation and then observe the client taking the medication. This approach ensures that the client takes the medication as prescribed, promoting compliance and safety. Choice A is not ideal as it involves unnecessary delegation and may lead to confusion. Choice C is incorrect because assuming refusal without direct communication can compromise patient care. Choice D is not recommended as leaving the medication with the client unsupervised may result in non-compliance or potential errors.
5. What is the primary purpose of administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) to an Rh-negative mother after childbirth?
- A. To prevent Rh sensitization in future pregnancies
- B. To treat anemia in the newborn
- C. To increase the mother's white blood cell count
- D. To prevent infection in the newborn
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: To prevent Rh sensitization in future pregnancies. RhoGAM is given to an Rh-negative mother to prevent the development of antibodies against Rh-positive blood cells. This prevents Rh sensitization, which could lead to hemolytic disease in future Rh-positive pregnancies. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because RhoGAM is not used to treat anemia in the newborn, increase the mother's white blood cell count, or prevent infection in the newborn.
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