Nursing Elites

1. In which type of cardiomyopathy does septal involvement occur?

• A. Congestive
• B. Dilated
• C. Hypertrophic
• D. Restrictive

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Septal involvement is a characteristic feature of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, where the septal wall of the heart thickens. This thickening can obstruct blood flow out of the heart, leading to complications such as arrhythmias and heart failure. This differentiates it from other types of cardiomyopathy. In congestive cardiomyopathy (choice A), the heart's chambers become enlarged and weakened, but there is no specific mention of septal involvement. Dilated cardiomyopathy (choice B) involves dilation and impaired contraction of the heart chambers, not specifically septal thickening. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice D) is characterized by stiffening of the heart muscle, affecting its ability to fill properly, without direct involvement of the septum.

2. Thirty minutes after receiving IV morphine, a postoperative client continues to rate pain as 7 on a 10-point scale. Which action should the PN implement first?

• A. Call healthcare provider to request a different analgesic
• B. Determine when morphine can be given again
• C. Implement complementary pain relief methods
• D. Observe dressing to determine the presence of bleeding

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate action for the PN to implement first is to implement complementary pain relief methods. This includes repositioning the client, applying heat or cold packs, or using relaxation techniques. These strategies can provide additional pain relief before the next dose of medication is due or before seeking further instructions from the healthcare provider. Calling the healthcare provider immediately to request a different analgesic (Choice A) may not be necessary at this moment since other non-pharmacological methods can be attempted first. Determining when morphine can be given again (Choice B) is important but addressing the client's immediate pain relief takes precedence. Observing the dressing for bleeding (Choice D) is important but not the first priority when the client is experiencing unrelieved pain.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with pericarditis. Which of the following nursing interventions will promote comfort for the client?

• A. Auscultating the client's heart sounds
• B. Provide the client with a diversionary activity
• C. Encourage deep breathing
• D. Maintain a patent intravenous access

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Providing a diversionary activity is the most appropriate nursing intervention to promote comfort for a client with pericarditis. This intervention helps to distract the patient and reduce discomfort by focusing their attention elsewhere. Auscultating heart sounds, while important for monitoring the condition, does not directly address the client's comfort. Encouraging deep breathing can be beneficial for some conditions but may not be specifically aimed at promoting comfort in pericarditis. Maintaining a patent intravenous access is essential for treatment access and management of the condition, but it does not directly promote comfort for the client.

4. The nurse and unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are providing care for a client who exhibits signs of neglect syndrome following a stroke affecting the right hemisphere. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Demonstrate to the UAP how to approach the client from the client's left side
• B. Ask the UAP to leave the room and assess the client's body for bruising
• C. Carefully observe the interaction between the client and family members
• D. Instruct the UAP to protect the client's left side when transferring to a chair

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to demonstrate to the UAP how to approach the client from the client's left side. Approaching the client from the neglected side (left side) can help in retraining the brain and improving awareness of the affected side, which is crucial in the management of neglect syndrome. Choice B is incorrect as assessing the client's body for bruising is not directly related to managing neglect syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as observing the interaction between the client and family members does not address the specific intervention needed for neglect syndrome. Choice D is incorrect because protecting the client's left side when transferring to a chair does not actively involve retraining the brain and improving awareness of the neglected side, which is the primary goal in managing neglect syndrome.

5. During a routine prenatal visit at the antepartal clinic, a multipara at 35-weeks gestation presents with 2+ edema of the ankles and feet. Which additional information should the PN report to the RN?

• A. Due date
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Gravida and parity
• D. Fundal height

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Blood pressure is the most critical information to report to the RN in this scenario. The presence of edema, along with high blood pressure, can be indicative of preeclampsia, a severe condition in pregnancy. Monitoring blood pressure is essential for assessing the patient's condition and taking appropriate actions if necessary. Choices A, C, and D are not as urgent in this situation. The due date, gravida, and parity are important for overall assessment but do not address the immediate concern of potential preeclampsia. Fundal height is used to assess fetal growth and position but is not the priority when edema and high blood pressure are present.

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