Nursing Elites

1. Select the type of skeletal fracture that is correctly paired with its description.

• A. A complete fracture: The fractured bone penetrates through the skin to the skin surface.
• B. A pathological fracture: A fracture that results from some physical trauma.
• C. A greenstick fracture: This bends but does not fracture the bone.
• D. An avulsion fracture: A fracture that pulls a part of the bone from the tendon or ligament

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An avulsion fracture occurs when a part of the bone is pulled away by a tendon or ligament. Choice A is incorrect because it describes an open fracture where the bone penetrates the skin. Choice B is incorrect as a pathological fracture results from an underlying disease weakening the bone, not physical trauma. Choice C is incorrect as a greenstick fracture involves the bone bending but not completely breaking.

2. A nurse in the emergency department is assessing a client who is unconscious following a motor-vehicle crash. The client requires immediate surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Transport the client to the operating room without verifying informed consent
• B. Ask the anesthesiologist to sign the consent
• C. Obtain telephone consent from the facility administrator before the surgery
• D. Delay the surgery until the nurse can obtain informed consent

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In emergency situations where a client is unconscious and requires immediate surgery, implied consent applies. Implied consent allows healthcare providers, including nurses, to proceed with necessary treatment or surgery without formally verifying informed consent. Choice A is correct because the priority in this scenario is to ensure the client receives timely medical intervention to address life-threatening conditions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in emergencies, waiting to obtain formal consent can delay critical treatment, risking the client's health and well-being.

3. Round off these numbers to the nearest tenth:

• A. 5.5778 = 5.6, 1.027 = 1.0, 62.999 = 63, 55.123 = 55.1, 96.676 = 96.7
• B. 5.5778 = 5.6, 1.027 = 1.0, 62.999 = 63, 55.123 = 55.1, 96.676 = 96.7
• C. 5.5778 = 5.6, 1.027 = 1.0, 62.999 = 63, 55.123 = 55.1, 96.676 = 96.7
• D. 5.5778 = 5.6, 1.027 = 1.0, 62.999 = 63, 55.123 = 55.1, 96.676 = 96.7

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When rounding off to the nearest tenth, 1.027 becomes 1.0 because the digit in the hundredth's place is less than 5. For the other numbers, they are rounded correctly to the nearest tenth: 5.5778 = 5.6, 62.999 = 63, 55.123 = 55.1, 96.676 = 96.7. Therefore, option B is the most accurate in rounding off these numbers to the nearest tenth. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not round 1.027 to 1.0 as required when rounding to the nearest tenth.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has anorexia nervosa. Which of the following interdisciplinary team members should be consulted in regards to client care?

• A. Occupational therapist
• B. Case manager
• C. Nutritionist
• D. Psychiatrist

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A case manager is the most appropriate interdisciplinary team member to consult for a client with anorexia nervosa. They can help coordinate care, resources, and communication between various healthcare professionals involved in the client's treatment. Consulting an occupational therapist (Choice A) may not directly address the primary concerns associated with anorexia nervosa. While nutritional therapists (Choice C) play a role in addressing nutritional needs, a case manager is better suited for overall care coordination. Mental health counselors (Choice D) focus more on emotional and psychological aspects, whereas a case manager coordinates practical aspects of care.

5. Which statement about glaucoma is true and accurate?

• A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency.
• B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma leads to the loss of peripheral vision and tunnel vision.
• C. Primary open-angle glaucoma leads to eye pain, nausea, and vomiting, blurry vision, and halos.
• D. Bubbles are implanted to protect the retina from glaucoma.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency.' Acute angle-closure glaucoma is indeed considered an ocular emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent vision loss. Choice B is incorrect because acute angle-closure glaucoma commonly presents with symptoms like severe eye pain, headache, blurred vision, and halos around lights. Choice C is incorrect as these symptoms are more indicative of acute angle-closure glaucoma rather than primary open-angle glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect since bubbles are not typically used to protect the retina from glaucoma; treatment usually involves medications, laser therapy, or surgery to manage intraocular pressure.

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