select the type of skeletal fracture that is correctly paired with its description
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Leadership and Management Test Bank

1. Select the type of skeletal fracture that is correctly paired with its description.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An avulsion fracture occurs when a part of the bone is pulled away by a tendon or ligament. Choice A is incorrect because it describes an open fracture where the bone penetrates the skin. Choice B is incorrect as a pathological fracture results from an underlying disease weakening the bone, not physical trauma. Choice C is incorrect as a greenstick fracture involves the bone bending but not completely breaking.

2. Which statement about adjuvant medications is true and accurate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because adjuvant medications are often available over the counter without a prescription. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because licensed practical nurses can administer adjuvant medications depending on their scope of practice. Choices B and C are incorrect because adjuvant medications are not classified as schedule 1 or schedule 2 narcotics.

3. A nurse is orienting a newly licensed nurse about client confidentiality. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because encrypting personal health information when sending emails is a crucial aspect of maintaining client confidentiality. This process ensures that sensitive information is protected during electronic communication. Choice A is incorrect as sharing passwords violates client confidentiality. Choice C is incorrect as posting client's vital signs breaches confidentiality. Choice D is incorrect as discarding personal health information in the trash can lead to unauthorized access.

4. A client with type 1 DM has a finger stick glucose level of 258mg/dl at bedtime. An order for sliding scale insulin exists. The nurse should:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client with type 1 DM has a high glucose level at bedtime. The appropriate action for the nurse is to administer the sliding scale insulin as ordered. This insulin regimen is specifically designed to manage high blood glucose levels. Calling the physician is not necessary as the protocol for sliding scale insulin is already in place. Encouraging fluid intake or providing orange juice is not the correct intervention for addressing high blood glucose levels in this case.

5. Clients with type 1 diabetes may require which of the following changes to their daily routine during periods of infection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During periods of infection, clients with type 1 diabetes may require more insulin to manage the increased blood glucose levels caused by stress and illness. Insulin needs often rise during infections due to the body's increased resistance to the effects of insulin. Therefore, increasing insulin doses is crucial to maintain blood glucose control. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Option A ('No change') is inaccurate because during infections, insulin requirements typically increase. Option B ('Less insulin') is incorrect as the body's increased insulin resistance during infections usually necessitates higher insulin doses. Option D ('Oral antidiabetic agents') is not suitable for type 1 diabetes management as these medications are primarily used for type 2 diabetes.

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