HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Test Bank
1. The doctor has ordered 1,000 cc of intravenous fluid every 8 hours. You will be using intravenous tubing that delivers 20 cc/drop. At what rate will you adjust the intravenous fluid flow? _____ gtts per minute.
- A. 38 gtts/min
- B. 42 gtts/min
- C. 50 gtts/min
- D. 40 gtts/min
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To calculate the rate: 1000 cc/8 hours = 125 cc/hour. 125 cc/hour * 1 drop/20 cc * 1 hour/60 minutes = 40 gtts/min. Therefore, the correct answer is 40 gtts/min. Choice A (38 gtts/min) is incorrect as it doesn't match the calculation result. Choice B (42 gtts/min) is incorrect as it is not the calculated rate. Choice C (50 gtts/min) is incorrect as it is not the calculated rate either.
2. A patient's serum potassium level is 2.2 mEq/L. Which nursing action is the highest priority for this patient?
- A. Start oxygen at 2 L/min
- B. Initiate cardiac monitoring
- C. Initiate seizure precautions
- D. Keep the patient on bed rest
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to initiate cardiac monitoring. Severe hypokalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, making cardiac monitoring the priority to detect and manage any cardiac complications. Starting oxygen, seizure precautions, or bed rest are not the immediate priority actions for severe hypokalemia.
3. Your client has a doctor's order that reads 'advance diet as tolerated'. This client has returned from the recovery room after an appendectomy and he states, 'I am hungry'. What would you offer this client to consume?
- A. Cheese and crackers
- B. Apple sauce
- C. Chicken broth
- D. A peanut butter sandwich
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chicken broth is a suitable option for a post-appendectomy patient beginning to tolerate oral intake. It is clear liquid and easily digestible, making it a gentle choice for someone who has just returned from surgery. Cheese and crackers, apple sauce, and a peanut butter sandwich are not ideal options for an individual who needs to start with a light and easily digestible diet.
4. A nurse in a clinic is reviewing laboratory reports for a group of clients. Which of the following diseases should the nurse report to the state health department?
- A. Pertussis
- B. Group B streptococcal disease
- C. Respiratory syncytial virus
- D. Rotavirus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pertussis is the correct answer because it is a reportable disease that healthcare providers are required by law to report to public health authorities. This infectious disease poses a significant public health risk and needs to be monitored closely to prevent outbreaks and implement control measures. Group B streptococcal disease, Respiratory syncytial virus, and Rotavirus are important conditions but are not typically reportable to the state health department. These diseases may require specific precautions in healthcare settings, but they do not fall under mandatory reporting requirements.
5. The wound irrigation process cleanses the wound and:
- A. Reduces the potential pain in the wound region or area.
- B. Stops the spread of infection by creating a 'clean' area.
- C. Pushes extravasated blood from a hematoma into nearby healthy tissue.
- D. Allows for the introduction of medications in solution form.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because wound irrigation allows for the introduction of medications in solution form to the wound site. Choice A is incorrect because while wound irrigation can help with pain management indirectly by promoting healing, its primary purpose is not to reduce pain directly. Choice B is incorrect as wound irrigation primarily aims to cleanse the wound and remove contaminants rather than creating a 'clean' area to stop infection spread. Choice C is incorrect because wound irrigation does not involve pushing extravasated blood from a hematoma into nearby healthy tissue; its main goal is to cleanse the wound and promote healing.
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