Nursing Elites

1. Select the nursing theorist who is accurately paired with the theory or model of nursing that they are credited with.

• A. The Twelve Nursing Problems: Faye Glenn Abdullah
• B. The Nature of Nursing: Imogene King
• C. The Goal Attainment Theory: Virginia Henderson
• D. The Interpersonal Relations Model: Hildegard Peplau

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Hildegard Peplau is credited with the Interpersonal Relations Model in nursing. Faye Glenn Abdullah is associated with the Developmental Theory of Nursing. Imogene King developed the Theory of Goal Attainment. Virginia Henderson is known for the Definition of Nursing. Therefore, among the given options, only Hildegard Peplau is correctly paired with the Interpersonal Relations Model.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is unconscious and whose partner is their health care surrogate. The partner wishes to discontinue the client's feeding tube, but another family member tells the nurse that they want the client to continue receiving treatment. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. You should contact the provider about your wishes for your family member.
• B. We'll need to have the nursing supervisor review the client's advance directives.
• C. You should speak with the facility's ethics committee about your concerns.
• D. As the health care surrogate, the client's partner can make this decision.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is D because the health care surrogate, as designated by the client, has the legal authority to make healthcare decisions on behalf of the client when they are unable to do so. This authority includes decisions about treatment continuation or withdrawal. Option A is incorrect as the family member's wishes do not override the legal authority of the health care surrogate. Option B is not the most appropriate action in this situation as the advance directives are already clear by the designation of a health care surrogate. Option C is not necessary at this stage since the health care surrogate can make the decision without involving the ethics committee.

3. Which of the following nursing interventions should be taken for a client who complains of nausea and vomits one hour after taking his glyburide (DiaBeta)?

• A. Administer glyburide again
• B. Administer subcutaneous insulin and monitor blood glucose
• C. Monitor blood glucose closely, and look for signs of hypoglycemia
• D. Monitor blood glucose and assess for signs of hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a client complains of nausea and vomits one hour after taking glyburide, the priority nursing intervention should be to monitor blood glucose closely and look for signs of hypoglycemia. Vomiting could indicate that the glyburide was not properly absorbed, potentially leading to hypoglycemia. Administering glyburide again (Choice A) could worsen hypoglycemia. Administering subcutaneous insulin (Choice B) is not appropriate without assessing the blood glucose first. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia (Choice D) is not the immediate concern in this situation.

4. A nurse is comparing the rate of medication errors on the medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Which of the following quality improvement methods is the nurse using?

• A. Structure audit
• B. Benchmarking
• C. Risk benefit analysis
• D. Root cause analysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Benchmarking. Benchmarking involves comparing performance metrics with those from other units or institutions, which is exactly what the nurse is doing by comparing the rate of medication errors on their medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Choice A, Structure audit, is not relevant to this scenario as it focuses on assessing the physical, organizational, or procedural structures in a healthcare setting. Choice C, Risk benefit analysis, involves weighing the potential risks and benefits of a particular course of action, not comparing performance metrics. Choice D, Root cause analysis, is a method used to identify the underlying causes of problems or adverse events, not to compare performance metrics between units.

5. During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage VI

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur. Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage. Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.

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