Nursing Elites

1. A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?

• A. Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath
• B. Shallow respirations and severe abdominal pain
• C. Decreased respirations and increased urine output
• D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations and foul-smelling urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), as the condition progresses, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to Kussmaul's respirations. The accumulation of ketones in the body causes a fruity odor on the breath. Option A is correct because Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath are classic signs of DKA. Option B is incorrect because shallow respirations are not typically seen in DKA, and severe abdominal pain is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis. Option C is incorrect as decreased respirations are not a typical finding in DKA, and increased urine output is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Option D is incorrect because Cheyne-Stokes respirations are not characteristic of DKA, and foul-smelling urine is not a prominent symptom in this condition.

2. A nurse enters a client room to witness an informed consent for a gastroscopy. The client states he does not understand the procedure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Educate the client about the risks of refusing medications
• B. Complete an incident report
• C. Answer the client's question concerning the procedure
• D. Inform the provider that the client requires clarification about the procedure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the provider that the client requires clarification about the procedure. This ensures that the client fully understands the gastroscopy procedure before giving consent. Choice A is incorrect as the client's issue is not about refusing medications. Choice B is irrelevant as there is no incident to report. Choice C could be misleading as the nurse should not be providing information about the procedure but rather ensuring that the client gets the necessary clarification from the provider.

3. Select the nursing theorist who is accurately paired with the theory or model of nursing that they are credited with.

• A. The Twelve Nursing Problems: Faye Glenn Abdullah
• B. The Nature of Nursing: Imogene King
• C. The Goal Attainment Theory: Virginia Henderson
• D. The Interpersonal Relations Model: Hildegard Peplau

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Hildegard Peplau is credited with the Interpersonal Relations Model in nursing. Faye Glenn Abdullah is associated with the Developmental Theory of Nursing. Imogene King developed the Theory of Goal Attainment. Virginia Henderson is known for the Definition of Nursing. Therefore, among the given options, only Hildegard Peplau is correctly paired with the Interpersonal Relations Model.

4. During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage VI

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur. Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage. Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.

5. Which individual is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease?

• A. An elderly female who is hospitalized with a hip fracture and on bed rest
• B. A middle-aged male patient who has been exposed to asbestos in the shipping industry
• C. An adolescent who is physically active and the captain of their soccer team
• D. An infant of low birth weight and a gestational age of 28 weeks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Osgood-Schlatter disease is a condition that commonly affects adolescents who are physically active, especially during growth spurts. It is caused by overuse of the knee, leading to inflammation of the patellar ligament at the tibial tuberosity. The repetitive stress on the growth plate during activities like running and jumping can trigger this condition. Therefore, an adolescent who is physically active and the captain of their soccer team is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease. Choices A, B, and D are not at high risk for this condition as it is primarily seen in active adolescents.

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