Nursing Elites

1. A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?

• A. Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath
• B. Shallow respirations and severe abdominal pain
• C. Decreased respirations and increased urine output
• D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations and foul-smelling urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), as the condition progresses, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to Kussmaul's respirations. The accumulation of ketones in the body causes a fruity odor on the breath. Option A is correct because Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath are classic signs of DKA. Option B is incorrect because shallow respirations are not typically seen in DKA, and severe abdominal pain is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis. Option C is incorrect as decreased respirations are not a typical finding in DKA, and increased urine output is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Option D is incorrect because Cheyne-Stokes respirations are not characteristic of DKA, and foul-smelling urine is not a prominent symptom in this condition.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who wanders through the halls yelling obscenities at staff, other clients, and visitors. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Keep the client in their room with the door closed
• B. Contact a family member to come and sit with the client
• C. Place the client in a wheelchair with a lap tray
• D. Administer a sedative to the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When dealing with a client exhibiting disruptive behavior like yelling obscenities, involving a family member can provide emotional support and help in de-escalating the situation. Keeping the client isolated in their room (Choice A) may lead to further agitation. Placing the client in a wheelchair (Choice C) or administering a sedative (Choice D) should not be the first interventions for managing behavioral issues.

3. In developing a disaster management plan for a hospital, which resource should be the highest priority to have available in response to a bioterrorism event?

• A. A mental health specialist on the response team
• B. A sufficient supply of PPE
• C. A system for tracking client information
• D. A network for communication between staff members and families

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a bioterrorism event, the highest priority resource to have available is a sufficient supply of personal protective equipment (PPE). PPE is crucial in protecting healthcare workers and other responders from exposure to biological agents. While mental health support, client information tracking systems, and communication networks are important components of disaster management, in the context of a bioterrorism event, ensuring the safety of staff through adequate PPE takes precedence over other resources.

4. What is an episiotomy?

• A. A surgical incision of the perineum to prevent tearing during delivery.
• B. Releasing the red plug from the cervix just before crowning occurs.
• C. An incision in the abdomen with which the baby can be delivered through.
• D. The severance of the umbilical cord between mother and child.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An episiotomy is a surgical incision of the perineum to prevent tearing during delivery. This procedure is performed to widen the vaginal opening and facilitate childbirth. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the expulsion of the mucus plug, not an episiotomy. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to a different procedure, a cesarean section, where the baby is delivered through an incision in the abdomen. Choice D is incorrect as it pertains to cutting the umbilical cord, which is not related to an episiotomy.

5. You are caring for a neonate who has a cleft palate. You should inform the mother that surgical correction will be done when the infant is:

• A. 8 to 12 months of age.
• B. 20 to 24 months of age.
• C. 16 to 20 months of age.
• D. 12 to 16 months of age.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 8 to 12 months of age. Surgical correction for a cleft palate is typically performed around this age to optimize speech development and prevent feeding difficulties. Options B, C, and D suggest later ages for surgery, which may lead to speech and feeding issues due to the delay in correction.

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