HESI LPN
Leadership and Management HESI Test Bank
1. Jansen is receiving metformin (Glucophage). What will be the best plan of the nurse with regard to patient education with this drug? Select one that does not apply.
- A. It stimulates the pancreas to produce more insulin.
- B. It must be taken after meals.
- C. It decreases sugar production in the liver.
- D. It inhibits absorption of carbohydrates.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct choice that does not apply is A. Metformin does not stimulate the pancreas to produce more insulin; instead, it works by decreasing sugar production in the liver, inhibiting carbohydrate absorption, and reducing insulin resistance. It is recommended to take metformin with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Option B is incorrect as metformin is usually taken with meals. Option D is also incorrect as metformin does not inhibit the absorption of carbohydrates.
2. Clients with type 1 diabetes may require which of the following changes to their daily routine during periods of infection?
- A. No change
- B. Less insulin
- C. More insulin
- D. Oral antidiabetic agents
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During periods of infection, clients with type 1 diabetes may require more insulin to manage the increased blood glucose levels caused by stress and illness. Insulin needs often rise during infections due to the body's increased resistance to the effects of insulin. Therefore, increasing insulin doses is crucial to maintain blood glucose control. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Option A ('No change') is inaccurate because during infections, insulin requirements typically increase. Option B ('Less insulin') is incorrect as the body's increased insulin resistance during infections usually necessitates higher insulin doses. Option D ('Oral antidiabetic agents') is not suitable for type 1 diabetes management as these medications are primarily used for type 2 diabetes.
3. Based on the signs and symptoms of erythema marginatum, Sydenham chorea, epistaxis, abdominal pain, fever, cardiac problems, and skin nodules in your 32-year-old female patient, what disorder would you most likely suspect?
- A. Leukemia
- B. Histoplasmosis
- C. Pneumocystis jiroveci
- D. Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The signs and symptoms described point towards rheumatoid arthritis. Erythema marginatum, Sydenham chorea, epistaxis, abdominal pain, fever, cardiac issues, and skin nodules are classic manifestations of rheumatic fever, which is a complication of untreated streptococcal infection. This condition can lead to rheumatoid arthritis over time. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the provided signs and symptoms, and they are not associated with the clinical presentation described.
4. Your patient has been diagnosed with orchiditis. What information about this disorder should you inform the patient about?
- A. This disorder often occurs as a result of streptococcus.
- B. This disorder can be symptomatically treated with ice.
- C. This disorder can be symptomatically treated with heat.
- D. This disorder is typically treated with surgery.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Orchiditis can be symptomatically treated with ice to reduce inflammation. Choice A is incorrect because orchiditis is not typically caused by streptococcus. Choice C is incorrect as heat is not the recommended treatment for orchiditis. Choice D is also incorrect as surgery is not the first-line treatment for orchiditis.
5. Your patient has a blood potassium level of 9.2 mEq/L. What intervention should you anticipate for this patient?
- A. Intravenous potassium supplementation
- B. Intravenous calcium supplementation
- C. Kidney dialysis
- D. Parenteral nutrition
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Kidney dialysis. A blood potassium level of 9.2 mEq/L indicates severe hyperkalemia, which can be life-threatening. Kidney dialysis is the most appropriate intervention to rapidly lower potassium levels in this situation. Choice A, intravenous potassium supplementation, would worsen the hyperkalemia. Choice B, intravenous calcium supplementation, is not the primary intervention for hyperkalemia. Choice D, parenteral nutrition, is unrelated to treating hyperkalemia and would not address the immediate concern.
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