HESI LPN
Leadership and Management HESI Test Bank
1. Jansen is receiving metformin (Glucophage). What will be the best plan of the nurse with regard to patient education with this drug? Select one that does not apply.
- A. It stimulates the pancreas to produce more insulin.
- B. It must be taken after meals.
- C. It decreases sugar production in the liver.
- D. It inhibits absorption of carbohydrates.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct choice that does not apply is A. Metformin does not stimulate the pancreas to produce more insulin; instead, it works by decreasing sugar production in the liver, inhibiting carbohydrate absorption, and reducing insulin resistance. It is recommended to take metformin with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Option B is incorrect as metformin is usually taken with meals. Option D is also incorrect as metformin does not inhibit the absorption of carbohydrates.
2. Diabetes insipidus is the result of:
- A. A diet high in sugar and carbohydrates.
- B. A complicated pregnancy.
- C. A disorder of the pancreas.
- D. A disorder of the pituitary gland.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Diabetes insipidus is caused by a disorder of the pituitary gland affecting ADH regulation. This disorder results in the decreased production or release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to the inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine properly. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not relate to the underlying cause of diabetes insipidus.
3. The doctor has ordered 20 cc per hour of normal saline intravenously for your pediatric patient. You will be using pediatric intravenous tubing that delivers 60 cc per drop. How many drops per minute will you administer using this pediatric intravenous set?
- A. 30 drops per minute
- B. 25 drops per minute
- C. 20 drops per minute
- D. 22 drops per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute, first convert the ordered amount to drops per minute. 20 cc per hour equals 20 drops per hour with 60 cc per drop tubing, which is equivalent to 20 drops per hour * 60 cc per drop = 1200 drops per hour. To find drops per minute, divide 1200 by 60 (minutes in an hour), which equals 20 drops per minute. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 drops per minute. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.
4. What is the expected date of delivery for a woman whose last menstrual period was on April 20th?
- A. January 20th
- B. January 27th
- C. January 29th
- D. January 31st
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The expected date of delivery is calculated by adding 9 months and 7 days to the last menstrual period. For April 20th, the expected date is January 27th. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A, January 20th, is incorrect as it does not account for the additional 7 days. Choice C, January 29th, and Choice D, January 31st, are also incorrect as they do not consider the standard calculation method for estimating the due date.
5. The doctor has ordered 1,000 cc of intravenous fluid every 8 hours. You will be using intravenous tubing that delivers 20 cc/drop. At what rate will you adjust the intravenous fluid flow? _____ gtts per minute.
- A. 38 gtts/min
- B. 42 gtts/min
- C. 50 gtts/min
- D. 40 gtts/min
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To calculate the rate: 1000 cc/8 hours = 125 cc/hour. 125 cc/hour * 1 drop/20 cc * 1 hour/60 minutes = 40 gtts/min. Therefore, the correct answer is 40 gtts/min. Choice A (38 gtts/min) is incorrect as it doesn't match the calculation result. Choice B (42 gtts/min) is incorrect as it is not the calculated rate. Choice C (50 gtts/min) is incorrect as it is not the calculated rate either.
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