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HESI Mental Health Practice Questions
1. A male client is brought to the emergency department by a police officer, who reports the client was disturbing the peace by running naked in the street, striking out at others, and smashing car windows. Which behaviors should the client demonstrate to determine if he should be evaluated for involuntary commitment?
- A. Threats to kill his friend.
- B. Disruptive behaviors in a community setting.
- C. Hears voices telling him to kill himself.
- D. Reports he has not needed a bath in 4 months.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client's dangerous and disruptive behaviors, along with auditory hallucinations of self-harm, suggest a need for involuntary commitment for his safety and that of others. Involuntary commitment may be warranted based on the client's poor hygiene and self-neglect, as it indicates an inability to care for himself, which can pose a risk to his well-being.
2. What is the most important nursing intervention during the first 48 hours for a client with anorexia nervosa admitted to the hospital?
- A. Providing high-calorie, high-protein meals.
- B. Monitoring vital signs and electrolytes.
- C. Encouraging the client to talk about feelings.
- D. Observing for signs of purging.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important nursing intervention during the first 48 hours for a client with anorexia nervosa is monitoring vital signs and electrolytes (B) to assess for life-threatening complications. This helps in early detection of any physiological imbalances that could lead to serious consequences. Providing high-calorie, high-protein meals (A) is important for nutritional rehabilitation but comes after ensuring the client's physical stability. Encouraging the client to talk about feelings (C) and observing for signs of purging (D) are relevant aspects of care but are not as critical as monitoring vital signs and electrolytes in the initial phase of treatment.
3. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. After one week, the client reports feeling no improvement in mood. What is the best response by the RN?
- A. It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.
- B. We may need to switch to a different medication.
- C. You should feel better by now, let's discuss this with your doctor.
- D. Maybe you are not taking the medication as prescribed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is A: 'It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.' This response is appropriate because SSRI and other antidepressants often require several weeks to exhibit improvement in mood. It is crucial to educate the client about this delay to manage expectations and promote adherence to the medication regimen. Choice B is incorrect as switching medications prematurely is not typically recommended after just one week. Choice C is incorrect because it sets unrealistic expectations for immediate improvement. Choice D is incorrect as it may come across as accusatory and should not be the initial response.
4. A client with schizophrenia is being discharged with a prescription for risperidone (Risperdal). What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide?
- A. Stop taking the medication if you start feeling better.
- B. Be aware of the potential for weight gain with this medication.
- C. Report any unusual muscle movements immediately.
- D. You can drive as soon as you feel ready.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Report any unusual muscle movements immediately." Unusual muscle movements may indicate extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) or tardive dyskinesia, which are serious side effects of antipsychotic medications like risperidone. It is crucial to address these symptoms promptly to prevent long-term effects. Choice A is incorrect because stopping the medication suddenly can be dangerous and should only be done under medical supervision. Choice B, while important, is not the most critical instruction in this scenario. Choice D is also incorrect as the ability to drive may be affected by the medication and should be discussed with a healthcare provider.
5. A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is experiencing a flashback. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Encourage the client to talk about the trauma.
- B. Help the client to focus on the present.
- C. Administer prescribed anti-anxiety medication.
- D. Leave the client alone to work through the flashback.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority action is to help the client focus on the present (B), which can reduce the intensity of the flashback. Encouraging discussion of the trauma (A) should be done when the client is not actively experiencing a flashback. While medication (C) may be necessary, it is not the first priority in this situation. Leaving the client alone (D) is not appropriate as they need support to manage the flashback.
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