over a period of several weeks one male participant of a socialization group at a community day care center for the elderly monopolizes most of the gr
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HESI Mental Health

1. Over a period of several weeks, one male participant of a socialization group at a community day care center for the elderly monopolizes most of the group's time and interrupts others when they are talking. What is the best action for the nurse to take in this situation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Allowing the group to handle the situation is the best action as it promotes group dynamics and empowerment, especially since the group is in the working phase. Talking to the participant individually (A) might be seen as manipulative. Reminding the participant (B) can come across as dictatorial and may not address the underlying issue. Asking the participant to join another group (D) does not address the problem at hand and avoids the opportunity for growth and conflict resolution within the current group.

2. An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Expressing that life is without purpose can indicate deepening depression or suicidal ideation, which requires immediate attention. While sweating, fatigue, drowsiness, nausea, and loss of appetite can be side effects of duloxetine (Cymbalta), they do not indicate the same level of urgency as a statement suggesting deepening depression or suicidal ideation.

3. A client with major depressive disorder is being treated with cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which client statement indicates that CBT is having a positive effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Recognizing and challenging negative thoughts is a fundamental aspect of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). In this statement, the client demonstrates insight into the fact that their negative thoughts may not always be accurate, showing progress in reframing their thoughts. Choice B indicates some improvement in functioning but does not directly relate to the core principles of CBT. Choice C is concerning as abruptly stopping antidepressant medication can be detrimental to the client's well-being. Choice D reflects avoidance behavior, which is typically a target for intervention in CBT rather than a sign of positive progress.

4. The client is planning discharge for a male client with schizophrenia. The client insists that he is returning to his apartment, although the healthcare provider informed him that he will be moving to a boarding home. What is the most important nursing diagnosis for discharge planning?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best nursing diagnosis is (A) because the client is unable to acknowledge the move to a boarding home. While (B, C, and D) are potential nursing diagnoses, denial is the most critical as it is a defense mechanism preventing the client from addressing his feelings regarding the change in living arrangements.

5. The nurse should hold the next scheduled dose of a client's haloperidol (Haldol) based on which assessment finding(s)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A fever (D) may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially fatal complication of antipsychotics. The healthcare provider should be contacted before administering the next dose of Haldol. Dizziness when standing (A), shuffling gait and hand tremors (B), and urinary retention (C) are all adverse effects of Haldol that, while concerning, do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to the potential severity of NMS indicated by a fever.

Similar Questions

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