Nursing Elites

1. Over a period of several weeks, one male participant of a socialization group at a community day care center for the elderly monopolizes most of the group's time and interrupts others when they are talking. What is the best action for the nurse to take in this situation?

• A. Talk to the participant outside the group about his behavior during group meetings.
• B. Remind the participant to allow others in the group a chance to talk.
• C. Allow the group to handle the problem.
• D. Ask the participant to join another group.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Allowing the group to handle the situation is the best action as it promotes group dynamics and empowerment, especially since the group is in the working phase. Talking to the participant individually (A) might be seen as manipulative. Reminding the participant (B) can come across as dictatorial and may not address the underlying issue. Asking the participant to join another group (D) does not address the problem at hand and avoids the opportunity for growth and conflict resolution within the current group.

2. At a support meeting of parents of a teenager with polysubstance dependency, a parent states, 'Each time my son tries to quit taking drugs, he gets so depressed that I'm afraid he will commit suicide.' The nurse's response should be based on which information?

• A. Addiction is a chronic, incurable disease
• B. Tolerance to the effects of drugs causes feelings of depression
• C. Feelings of depression frequently lead to drug abuse and addiction
• D. Careful monitoring should be provided during withdrawal from the drugs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority is to teach the parents that their son will need monitoring and support during withdrawal to ensure that he does not attempt suicide. Option A is incorrect because addiction can be managed and treated effectively with appropriate interventions. Option B is incorrect as tolerance to drugs causing depression is not the primary concern in this scenario. Option C is incorrect as while depression can be a risk factor for drug abuse, in this case, the focus is on the son's safety during withdrawal.

3. What is the best initial action for the nurse to take with a manic depressive male client who becomes loud and verbally aggressive towards a nurse?

• A. Have the staff escort the client to his room.
• B. Tell the client that his behavior will be recorded in his record.
• C. Redirect the client by asking him to engage in a game with peers.
• D. Review the medication record for an antipsychotic drug.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In dealing with a manic depressive client who is being verbally aggressive, the best initial action for the nurse is to redirect the client by engaging him in a more constructive activity, such as playing card games with peers. This approach can help de-escalate the situation, shift the client's focus positively, and provide a distraction from the current behavior. Having the staff escort the client to his room may escalate the situation further. Threatening to record the behavior in his record is not likely to be effective in managing the immediate situation. Reviewing the medication record for an antipsychotic drug is important but would not be the best initial action in this scenario when the client is being verbally aggressive.

4. An adolescent who attempted suicide with a drug overdose arrives in the emergency department with an empty 30-tablet bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol). Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst).
• B. Monitor cardiac rhythm for flat T waves.
• C. Check both serum AST and ALT levels.
• D. Prepare to administer Syrup of Ipecac.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst). Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and should be administered promptly to prevent liver damage. Monitoring cardiac rhythm for flat T waves (Choice B) is not specific to acetaminophen overdose and is more related to cardiac conditions. Checking serum AST and ALT levels (Choice C) may be done later but is not the initial priority in this situation. Similarly, preparing to administer Syrup of Ipecac (Choice D) is not recommended anymore in cases of overdose as it can cause more harm.

5. The nurse is performing intake interviews at a psychiatric clinic. A female client with a known history of drug abuse reports that she had a heart attack four years ago. Use of which substance abuse places the client at the highest risk for myocardial infarction?

• A. Benzodiazepines
• B. Marijuana
• C. Methamphetamine
• D. Alcohol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methamphetamine use is strongly associated with cardiovascular risks, including myocardial infarction, due to its stimulant effects on the heart. Benzodiazepines (Choice A) are not typically associated with an increased risk of myocardial infarction. Marijuana (Choice B) is not commonly linked to heart attacks, though it can have other health effects. Alcohol (Choice D) abuse can lead to cardiovascular issues, but methamphetamine has a more direct and potent impact on the heart, making it the highest risk factor in this scenario.

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