HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Practice Questions
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn immediately following a vaginal birth. For which of the following findings should the provider intervene?
- A. Molding
- B. Vernix Caseosa
- C. Acrocyanosis
- D. Sternal retractions
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sternal retractions in a newborn indicate respiratory distress and require immediate intervention. This finding suggests the newborn is having difficulty breathing and needs prompt attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. Molding, the overlapping of fetal skull bones during birth, is a normal and expected process that does not require intervention. Vernix Caseosa, the protective white substance on the skin, and Acrocyanosis, the bluish discoloration of extremities, are both common and benign findings in newborns that do not necessitate immediate action. Therefore, the healthcare provider should focus on addressing sternal retractions to manage the respiratory distress effectively.
2. Which of the following most accurately describes the function of genes?
- A. They regulate the development of traits.
- B. They prevent foreign particles from entering the body.
- C. They work together with lutein to influence development.
- D. They transfer oxygen from the bloodstream to other parts of the body.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'They regulate the development of traits.' Genes play a crucial role in regulating the development of traits by encoding proteins that control various bodily functions and characteristics. This process involves gene expression and the production of proteins that ultimately determine an individual's traits. Choice B is incorrect because genes do not have a direct role in preventing foreign particles from entering the body; this function is primarily carried out by the immune system. Choice C is incorrect as genes do not specifically work with lutein to influence development; genes operate independently to regulate trait expression. Choice D is incorrect as genes are not responsible for transferring oxygen in the bloodstream; this function is carried out by red blood cells and hemoglobin.
3. When assessing a woman in the first stage of labor, which clinical finding will alert the nurse that uterine contractions are effective?
- A. Dilation of the cervix.
- B. Descent of the fetus to –2 station.
- C. Rupture of the amniotic membranes.
- D. Increase in bloody show.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During the first stage of labor, effective uterine contractions lead to cervical dilation. Dilation of the cervix is a key indicator that uterine contractions are progressing labor. Descent of the fetus to -2 station (Choice B) is related to the fetal position in the pelvis and not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness. Rupture of the amniotic membranes (Choice C) signifies the rupture of the fluid-filled sac surrounding the fetus and does not directly reflect uterine contraction effectiveness. An increase in bloody show (Choice D) can be a sign of impending labor, but it is not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness.
4. A client at 37 weeks gestation presents to labor and delivery with contractions every two minutes. The nurse observes several shallow small vesicles on her pubis, labia, and perineum. The nurse should recognize the client is exhibiting symptoms of which condition?
- A. Genital Warts
- B. Syphilis
- C. Herpes Simplex Virus
- D. German Measles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV). HSV can present with small vesicles on the genital area, and it is a concern during labor due to the risk of transmission to the newborn. Genital warts (Choice A) are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV) and typically present as flesh-colored growths, not vesicles. Syphilis (Choice B) manifests as painless sores and can have systemic effects but does not typically present with vesicles. German measles (Choice D), also known as Rubella, is a viral illness characterized by a red rash, fever, and lymphadenopathy, not vesicles.
5. Which of the following processes happen during mitosis?
- A. Strands of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) break apart.
- B. Adenine combines with its appropriate partner, cytosine.
- C. Sperm and ova cells are created.
- D. Twenty-three chromosomes are created.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct process that happens during mitosis is the breaking apart, replication, and division of DNA strands into two new cells, each with the same number of chromosomes as the original cell. Choice B is incorrect because it describes base pairing in DNA, not a process specific to mitosis. Choice C is incorrect as the creation of sperm and ova cells is related to meiosis, not mitosis. Choice D is incorrect because chromosomes are not created during mitosis; they are replicated and divided equally between the daughter cells.
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