Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn immediately following a vaginal birth. For which of the following findings should the provider intervene?

• A. Molding
• B. Vernix Caseosa
• C. Acrocyanosis
• D. Sternal retractions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sternal retractions in a newborn indicate respiratory distress and require immediate intervention. This finding suggests the newborn is having difficulty breathing and needs prompt attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. Molding, the overlapping of fetal skull bones during birth, is a normal and expected process that does not require intervention. Vernix Caseosa, the protective white substance on the skin, and Acrocyanosis, the bluish discoloration of extremities, are both common and benign findings in newborns that do not necessitate immediate action. Therefore, the healthcare provider should focus on addressing sternal retractions to manage the respiratory distress effectively.

2. Humans begin life as a single cell that divides repeatedly. This cell is known as a(n):

• A. zygote.
• B. gonadotrope.
• C. embryo.
• D. chromaffin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A zygote is the correct answer. It is the initial cell formed when a sperm cell fertilizes an egg cell, marking the beginning of human development. Choice B, gonadotrope, is incorrect as it refers to a type of hormone-secreting cell in the pituitary gland. Choice C, embryo, is incorrect as it is the stage of development after the zygote has implanted into the uterine wall and undergone initial cell divisions. Choice D, chromaffin, is incorrect as it refers to cells found in the adrenal medulla that produce and store catecholamines.

3. During a prenatal visit, for which of the following clients should the nurse auscultate the fetal heart rate?

• A. A client who has an ultrasound confirming a molar pregnancy
• B. A client who has a crown-rump length corresponding to 7 weeks gestation
• C. A client who has a positive urine pregnancy test 1 week after missed menses
• D. A client who has felt quickening for the first time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because feeling quickening typically occurs around 18-20 weeks of gestation, indicating fetal movement. This is an appropriate time to auscultate the fetal heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because a molar pregnancy is not a viable pregnancy, and auscultating the fetal heart rate in this case is not applicable. Choice B is incorrect because a crown-rump length of 7 weeks gestation is too early for fetal heart rate auscultation. Choice C is incorrect because a positive urine pregnancy test alone does not indicate the appropriate timing for fetal heart rate auscultation.

4. A mother spontaneously delivers a newborn infant in the taxicab while on the way to the hospital. The emergency room nurse reported the mother has active herpes (HSV II) lesions on the vulva. Which intervention should the nurse implement first when admitting the neonate to the nursery?

• A. Document the newborn's temperature on the flow sheet.
• B. Place the newborn in the isolation area of the nursery.
• C. Obtain a blood specimen for a serum glucose level.
• D. Administer the vitamin K injection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Newborns exposed to active herpes lesions are at high risk for neonatal herpes, which can be severe. Placing the newborn in isolation is crucial as it helps prevent the spread of the virus and allows for close monitoring. Documenting the newborn's temperature, obtaining a blood specimen for a serum glucose level, and administering the vitamin K injection are important interventions but are not the priority when dealing with a potential infectious risk like neonatal herpes.

5. Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome produce:

• A. less estrogen than normal males.
• B. less testosterone than normal males.
• C. less adenine than normal males.
• D. less thymine than normal males.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome have an extra X chromosome (XXY), leading to reduced production of testosterone, the primary male sex hormone. This deficiency can result in various physical and developmental characteristics associated with the syndrome. Estrogen levels may actually be relatively elevated due to the imbalance between testosterone and estrogen. Choices C and D are incorrect as adenine and thymine are nucleotide bases found in DNA and are not related to hormone production.

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