a nurse is assessing a newborn immediately following a vaginal birth for which of the following findings should the nurse intervene
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Maternity HESI Practice Questions

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn immediately following a vaginal birth. For which of the following findings should the provider intervene?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sternal retractions in a newborn indicate respiratory distress and require immediate intervention. This finding suggests the newborn is having difficulty breathing and needs prompt attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. Molding, the overlapping of fetal skull bones during birth, is a normal and expected process that does not require intervention. Vernix Caseosa, the protective white substance on the skin, and Acrocyanosis, the bluish discoloration of extremities, are both common and benign findings in newborns that do not necessitate immediate action. Therefore, the healthcare provider should focus on addressing sternal retractions to manage the respiratory distress effectively.

2. A client at 20 weeks of gestation has trichomoniasis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Malodorous discharge is a common symptom of trichomoniasis caused by the Trichomonas vaginalis parasite. It is typically described as frothy, greenish-yellow, and malodorous. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other conditions. Thick, white vaginal discharge is more characteristic of a yeast infection; urinary frequency may be seen in urinary tract infections; and vulvar lesions are commonly seen in herpes simplex virus infections.

3. What is the purpose of amniocentesis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amniocentesis is a diagnostic procedure used to detect genetic abnormalities in the fetus, such as chromosomal disorders like Down syndrome. It is not performed to induce abortion. The primary purpose of amniocentesis is to assess the genetic health of the fetus, not to determine the baby's gender (Choice C). While amniocentesis can provide information about the baby's health and development, it is not primarily used for monitoring fetal growth (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is B.

4. A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) receives artificial surfactant. How does the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Artificial surfactant can be administered as an adjunct to oxygen and ventilation therapy for premature infants with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). It helps improve respiratory compliance by aiding in the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide until the infant can produce enough surfactant naturally. The correct explanation to the parents would be that surfactant therapy enhances the baby’s lung function by facilitating the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Choice B is incorrect because surfactant therapy does not affect sedation needs. Choice C is inaccurate as surfactant is not used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea. Choice D is incorrect as surfactant is not administered to fight respiratory tract infections; it specifically targets improving lung function in RDS.

5. A newborn is being assessed by a nurse who was born post-term. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Post-term newborns often have longer nails that extend over the tips of their fingers due to the extended gestation period. This occurs because the baby continues to grow in utero past the typical 40 weeks of gestation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as large deposits of subcutaneous fat, pale translucent skin, and a thin covering of fine hair on shoulders and back are not typically associated with post-term newborns. Longer nails are a common finding in post-term newborns due to the prolonged time spent in the womb, allowing for more nail growth compared to infants born at term.

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