Nursing Elites

1. When assessing readiness to learn about insulin self-administration, what indicates the client is ready to learn?

• A. I can concentrate best in the morning.
• B. I feel anxious about learning the process.
• C. I have a lot of questions about insulin.
• D. I am not sure if I can manage this at home.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I can concentrate best in the morning.' Readiness to learn is indicated by the client's ability to focus and concentrate, as mentioned in the question. Choice B, 'I feel anxious about learning the process,' indicates apprehension and may hinder the learning process. Choice C, 'I have a lot of questions about insulin,' shows interest but does not directly indicate readiness to learn. Choice D, 'I am not sure if I can manage this at home,' reflects uncertainty and lack of confidence, which may suggest the client is not fully prepared to learn.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. Serum creatinine
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in clients with chronic kidney disease. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, aiming to increase hemoglobin levels and improve symptoms of anemia in these patients. Monitoring serum potassium (Choice A) is important in clients with kidney disease, but it is more related to assessing electrolyte balance rather than the direct effectiveness of epoetin alfa. Serum creatinine (Choice C) and blood urea nitrogen (Choice D) are kidney function tests that help evaluate kidney health but do not specifically reflect the effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy.

3. When reviewing a client’s fluid and electrolyte status, what should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 5.4
• B. Sodium 140
• C. Calcium 8.6
• D. Magnesium 2.0

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Potassium 5.4'. A potassium level of 5.4 is elevated (normal range is typically 3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and may indicate hyperkalemia, which can have serious cardiac implications. Elevated potassium levels can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, so immediate reporting and intervention are necessary. Choice B, 'Sodium 140', falls within the normal range (135-145 mEq/L) and does not require immediate reporting. Choice C, 'Calcium 8.6', falls within the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and is not an immediate concern. Choice D, 'Magnesium 2.0', is within the normal range (1.5-2.5 mEq/L) and does not need urgent reporting. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated potassium level as it poses the most immediate risk.

4. While being educated by a nurse, an assistive personnel (AP) is learning about proper hand hygiene. Which statement made by the AP indicates a good understanding of the teaching?

• A. There are times I should use soap and water rather than alcohol-based hand rub to clean my hands.
• B. I can use alcohol-based hand rub after using the restroom.
• C. Soap and water are only necessary if my hands are visibly dirty.
• D. Hand rub is always sufficient, regardless of the situation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because it demonstrates an understanding that soap and water should be used when hands are visibly dirty or when dealing with specific pathogens. Choice A is incorrect because it suggests the use of soap and water over alcohol-based hand rub without specifying the circumstances. Choice B is incorrect as it implies that using alcohol-based hand rub after using the restroom is always suitable. Choice D is incorrect because it states that hand rub is always enough, which is not true when hands are visibly soiled or when specific pathogens are present.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a patient who has multiple ticks on lower legs and body. What should the healthcare provider do to rid the patient of ticks?

• A. Use blunt tweezers and pull upward with steady pressure.
• B. Burn the ticks with a match or a small lighter.
• C. Allow the ticks to drop off by themselves.
• D. Apply miconazole and cover with plastic.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: When removing ticks, it is essential to use blunt tweezers to grasp the tick as close to the head as possible and pull upward with even, steady pressure to remove the entire tick. Option B is incorrect because burning ticks can increase the risk of infection and is not recommended. Option C is incorrect as waiting for ticks to drop off by themselves prolongs potential exposure to tick-borne diseases. Option D is incorrect as miconazole is an antifungal medication and not used for tick removal.

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