Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

2. A healthcare professional is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is postoperative and has fluid-volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?

• A. Increase in hematocrit
• B. Increase in respiratory rate
• C. Decrease in heart rate
• D. Decrease in capillary refill time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fluid-volume deficit causes tachycardia. With correction of the imbalance, the heart rate should return to the expected range. An increase in hematocrit (Choice A) would indicate hemoconcentration, not a successful fluid replacement. An increase in respiratory rate (Choice B) could indicate respiratory distress or hypoxia, not improvement in fluid volume status. A decrease in capillary refill time (Choice D) may indicate improved peripheral perfusion but is not a direct indicator of fluid replacement success.

3. Which statement best describes time management strategies applied to the role of a nurse manager?

• A. Schedule staff efficiently to cover the needs of the managed unit
• B. Assume a fair share of direct client care to set an example
• C. Set daily goals with a prioritization of tasks
• D. Delegate tasks to reduce workload associated with direct care and meetings

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Setting daily goals and prioritizing tasks is crucial for effective time management as a nurse manager. This approach helps in organizing and focusing on the most important responsibilities, ensuring that key tasks are completed efficiently. Choice A is incorrect as scheduling staff efficiently, while important, is more related to staffing management than direct time management strategies. Choice B is incorrect as assuming direct client care does not necessarily align with effective time management strategies for a nurse manager, as their primary role is overseeing and coordinating care. Choice D, while delegation is a key aspect of time management, the emphasis on reducing workload specifically associated with direct care and meetings may not always be the primary focus of a nurse manager's time management strategies.

4. During a physical assessment on a toddler, what should be the first action?

• A. Perform traumatic procedures
• B. Use minimal physical contact
• C. Proceed from head to toe
• D. Explain the exam in detail

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action when performing a physical assessment on a toddler is to use minimal physical contact. This approach helps the toddler become comfortable and reduces anxiety during the assessment. Traumatic procedures (Choice A) should never be the first action as they can cause distress. Proceeding from head to toe (Choice C) is a common sequence in physical assessments but does not address the initial need to establish trust and comfort. Explaining the exam in detail (Choice D) is important but should come after establishing a rapport through minimal physical contact.

5. After repositioning a client who reports shortness of breath, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

• A. Observe the rate, depth, and character of the client's respirations.
• B. Take the client’s blood pressure.
• C. Assess the client's pulse.
• D. Offer supplemental oxygen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Observing the rate, depth, and character of the client's respirations is crucial after repositioning a client experiencing shortness of breath. This action provides immediate information about the client's respiratory status. Checking blood pressure (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation, as assessing respirations is more urgent. Assessing the pulse (Choice C) is also important but does not provide direct information about the client's respiratory status. Offering supplemental oxygen (Choice D) may be necessary based on the assessment of respirations, but it should not be the first action taken without assessing the client's breathing pattern.

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