Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

2. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer a tuberculin skin test. Which site is most appropriate for this injection?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Vastus lateralis muscle
• C. Abdomen
• D. Inner forearm

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The inner forearm is the most appropriate site for administering a tuberculin skin test. This test requires an intradermal injection, which is administered just below the surface of the skin. The inner forearm provides a flat, easily accessible surface for this type of injection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the tuberculin skin test should not be administered into a muscle (deltoid muscle or vastus lateralis muscle) or into the abdomen. The test requires precise placement within the dermal layer of the skin on the inner forearm to accurately assess for a reaction.

3. The healthcare professional is caring for a client with a peripheral intravenous (IV) line that has infiltrated. What is the most appropriate initial action for the healthcare professional to take?

• A. Apply a warm compress to the affected area.
• B. Discontinue the IV and restart it in another site.
• C. Aspirate the IV line and flush it with normal saline.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct initial action when an IV line infiltrates is to discontinue the IV and restart it in another site. This is crucial to prevent complications such as tissue damage, phlebitis, and infection that can result from the infiltration. Applying a warm compress (Choice A) is not recommended as it can exacerbate the tissue damage caused by the infiltration. Aspirating the IV line and flushing it with normal saline (Choice C) is not appropriate for an infiltrated IV line as it does not address the main issue of infiltration. While notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, the immediate priority is to discontinue the infiltrated IV to prevent further harm and ensure proper delivery of fluids or medications.

4. A client has a new prescription for parenteral nutrition (PN) in 20% dextrose and fat emulsions. Which of the following is an appropriate action to include in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor blood glucose levels daily.
• B. Change the PN infusion bag every 24 hours.
• C. Prepare the client for a central venous line.
• D. Administer the PN and fat emulsion together.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client requires parenteral nutrition (PN) with a high dextrose concentration, such as 20%, it typically has a high osmolarity. High osmolarity solutions should be infused through a central venous line to prevent peripheral vein irritation and potential complications. Therefore, preparing the client for a central venous line is essential for the safe administration of PN with high dextrose. Monitoring blood glucose levels daily is important but not directly related to the need for a central venous line. Changing the PN infusion bag every 24 hours helps prevent bacterial contamination, but it is not the most critical action in this scenario. Administering the PN and fat emulsion together or separately is a matter of compatibility and administration guidelines, but it is not the key concern in this situation.

5. The nurse manager has been using a decentralized block scheduling plan to staff the nursing unit. However, staff have asked for many changes and exceptions to the schedule over the past few months. The manager considers self-scheduling knowing that this method will

• A. Improve the quality of care
• B. Decrease staff turnover
• C. Minimize the amount of overtime payouts
• D. Improve team morale

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Improve team morale.' Self-scheduling allows staff more control over their work hours, which can lead to increased job satisfaction, autonomy, and a sense of ownership over their schedules. This, in turn, fosters a positive work environment, enhances collaboration among team members, and boosts morale. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while self-scheduling may indirectly contribute to improved quality of care, decreased staff turnover, and minimized overtime payouts, the primary benefit in this context is the positive impact on team morale.

Similar Questions