Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

2. The client is receiving discharge instructions for a new antihypertensive medication. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will stop taking the medication if I experience dizziness.
• B. I will monitor my blood pressure regularly.
• C. I will avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. I will rise slowly from a sitting to a standing position.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Stopping antihypertensive medication abruptly can lead to rebound hypertension, which can be dangerous. Clients should never discontinue their medication without consulting their healthcare provider first. Choice B is correct because monitoring blood pressure is essential when taking antihypertensive medication to ensure it stays within the target range. Choice C is correct as alcohol can potentiate the hypotensive effects of antihypertensive medications. Choice D is correct as orthostatic hypotension can occur, so rising slowly helps prevent dizziness and falls. Therefore, choice A is the statement that indicates a need for further teaching.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a history of congestive heart failure. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Shortness of breath on exertion
• B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in a week
• C. Orthopnea
• D. Crackles in the lungs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crackles in the lungs are concerning because they indicate pulmonary congestion, a serious complication of congestive heart failure. The presence of crackles suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, requiring immediate attention to prevent respiratory distress and worsening heart failure. While shortness of breath on exertion, weight gain, and orthopnea are common signs and symptoms of heart failure, crackles specifically point to acute pulmonary edema or worsening congestion, making them the most concerning finding in this scenario.

4. During an admission history, a client tells a nurse that she is under a lot of stress. Which of the following physiological responses should the nurse expect to increase as a result of stress?

• A. Blood glucose - a common stress response.
• B. Intestinal peristalsis - should decrease due to stress.
• C. Peripheral blood vessels diameter - can vary in response to stress.
• D. Urine output - may vary but not a typical stress response.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Stress typically increases blood glucose levels due to the release of stress hormones like cortisol and adrenaline. Elevated blood glucose helps provide energy for the body to cope with the stressful situation. Choice B is incorrect because intestinal peristalsis, the movement of the intestines, is more likely to decrease under stress due to the 'fight or flight' response. Choice C is incorrect as peripheral blood vessels' diameter may vary in response to stress, with both constriction and dilation possible. Choice D is incorrect as urine output may increase or decrease depending on individual differences and the specific stress response, but it is not a typical or direct physiological response to stress.

5. When evaluating care of an immobilized patient, which action will the nurse take?

• A. Focus on whether the interdisciplinary team is satisfied with the care.
• B. Compare the patient's actual outcomes with the outcomes in the care plan.
• C. Involve primarily the patient's family and health care team to determine goal achievement.
• D. Use objective data solely in determining whether interventions have been successful.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When evaluating the care of an immobilized patient, the nurse should focus on assessing outcomes and response to nursing care. By comparing the patient's actual outcomes with the outcomes identified during planning, the nurse can determine the effectiveness of the interventions implemented. This process allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the care provided. Choice A is incorrect because the satisfaction of the interdisciplinary team does not directly reflect the patient's outcomes and response to care. Choice C is incorrect as it mainly focuses on the involvement of the patient's family and healthcare team, which may not provide a holistic evaluation of the patient's care. Choice D is incorrect as relying solely on objective data may lead to overlooking important subjective aspects of the patient's response and outcomes, which are also crucial in evaluating care effectively.

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