Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing the heart sounds of a client who has developed chest pain that becomes worse with inspiration. The nurse auscultates a high-pitched scratching sound during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border. Which of the following heart sounds should the nurse document?

• A. Pericardial friction rub
• B. Mitral stenosis
• C. Aortic regurgitation
• D. Tricuspid stenosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mitral stenosis. A high-pitched scratching sound heard during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border indicates mitral stenosis, not a pericardial friction rub. Pericardial friction rub is a to-and-fro, grating, or scratching sound due to inflamed pericardial surfaces rubbing together, typically heard in early diastole and late systole. Aortic regurgitation and tricuspid stenosis would present with different auscultatory findings compared to the described scenario, making them incorrect choices in this context.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Low blood pressure
• D. Thirst

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased urine output. In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to the excretion of large amounts of dilute urine. Reporting increased urine output is crucial as it is a hallmark sign of diabetes insipidus. Weight gain (choice A) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus; instead, clients may experience weight loss due to fluid loss. Low blood pressure (choice C) can be a complication of diabetes insipidus due to dehydration from excessive urination, but the priority finding to report is the increased urine output. Thirst (choice D) is a common symptom of diabetes insipidus due to the body's attempt to compensate for fluid loss, but it is not the most critical finding to report.

3. A client has restraints on each extremity. Which of the following assessments should the nurse perform first?

• A. Peripheral pulses
• B. Comfort level
• C. Elimination needs
• D. Skin integrity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is restrained, the nurse should prioritize assessing peripheral pulses first. This assessment is crucial to monitor circulation and ensure the restraints are not impeding blood flow. Comfort level, elimination needs, and skin integrity are also important assessments; however, assessing peripheral pulses takes precedence to prevent complications such as impaired circulation and tissue damage. By assessing peripheral pulses initially, the nurse can promptly identify and address any circulation issues, which are critical in preventing serious complications.

4. During preoperative education, a nurse should assess a client's readiness to learn before a mastectomy. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to learn?

• A. “I don’t want my spouse to see my incision.”
• B. “Will you give me pain medicine after the surgery?”
• C. “Can you tell me about how long the surgery will take?”
• D. “My roommate listens to everything I say.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Asking about the duration of the surgery indicates readiness to learn about the procedure. This question shows that the client is actively seeking information about the surgical process, demonstrating readiness to learn. Choices A, B, and D reflect concerns, specific requests, or statements unrelated to the learning process. They do not directly indicate readiness to absorb information about the upcoming mastectomy.

5. After preparing and lubricating the enema set, what is the correct sequence of steps a nurse should follow when administering a large volume enema to a client?

• A. Administer the enema solution.
• B. Remove the enema tube from the client's rectum.
• C. Wrap the end of the enema tube with a disposable tissue.
• D. Insert the enema tube into the client's rectum.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct sequence for administering a large volume enema is as follows: 1. Insert the enema tube into the rectum, 2. Administer the enema solution, 3. Clamp the tube, 4. Remove the tube, 5. Wrap the end with tissue. Therefore, the nurse should remove the enema tube from the client's rectum after administering the enema solution. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the enema tube should be removed from the rectum after the administration of the solution, not before or during the process.

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