the pediatric clinic nurse examines a toddler with a tentative diagnosis of neuroblastomfindings observed by the nurse that is associated with this pr
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals

1. The pediatric clinic nurse examines a toddler with a tentative diagnosis of neuroblastoma. Findings observed by the nurse that are associated with this problem include which of these?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Abdominal mass and weakness. In neuroblastoma, the most common presenting signs are related to the mass effect of the tumor, leading to an abdominal mass and symptoms of weakness. Lymphedema and nerve palsy (Choice A) are not typically associated with neuroblastoma. Hearing loss and ataxia (Choice B) are more indicative of other conditions like neurofibromatosis or brain tumors. Headaches and vomiting (Choice C) are more commonly seen in conditions such as brain tumors or increased intracranial pressure, but they are not specific to neuroblastoma.

2. After preparing and lubricating the enema set, what is the correct sequence of steps a nurse should follow when administering a large volume enema to a client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct sequence for administering a large volume enema is as follows: 1. Insert the enema tube into the rectum, 2. Administer the enema solution, 3. Clamp the tube, 4. Remove the tube, 5. Wrap the end with tissue. Therefore, the nurse should remove the enema tube from the client's rectum after administering the enema solution. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the enema tube should be removed from the rectum after the administration of the solution, not before or during the process.

3. The nurse has admitted a 4-year-old with the diagnosis of possible rheumatic fever. Which statement by the parent would cause the nurse to suspect an association with this disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rheumatic fever often follows a strep throat infection, which is why the nurse should suspect this association. Strep throat is caused by Group A Streptococcus bacteria, which can trigger an abnormal immune response leading to rheumatic fever. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because chickenpox, ear infections, and fungal skin infections are not typically associated with rheumatic fever.

4. When reviewing a client’s fluid and electrolyte status, what should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Potassium 5.4'. A potassium level of 5.4 is elevated (normal range is typically 3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and may indicate hyperkalemia, which can have serious cardiac implications. Elevated potassium levels can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, so immediate reporting and intervention are necessary. Choice B, 'Sodium 140', falls within the normal range (135-145 mEq/L) and does not require immediate reporting. Choice C, 'Calcium 8.6', falls within the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and is not an immediate concern. Choice D, 'Magnesium 2.0', is within the normal range (1.5-2.5 mEq/L) and does not need urgent reporting. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated potassium level as it poses the most immediate risk.

5. A client with a terminal illness is expected to pass away within 24 hours. The family asks the nurse about what to expect at this time. Which of the following findings should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: As death approaches, decreased muscle tone and other signs like decreased blood pressure, irregular breathing patterns, cold extremities, and decreased urine output are common. Warm extremities (choice B) would not be expected as circulation may be compromised. Increased urine output (choice C) is unlikely as organ function declines. A regular breathing pattern (choice A) is also unlikely as irregular breathing patterns are common near death.

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