Nursing Elites

1. A 16-year-old gravida 1 para 0 client has just been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of eclampsia. She's not presently convulsing. Which intervention should the nurse plan to include in this client's nursing care plan?

• A. Allow liberal family visitation
• B. Keep an airway at the bedside
• C. Assess temperature every hour
• D. Monitor blood pressure, pulse, and respiration every 4 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Keeping an airway at the bedside is crucial for a client with eclampsia, as there is a high risk of seizures that can obstruct the airway. Allowing liberal family visitation (choice A) may not be a priority at this time and can be overwhelming for the client. Assessing temperature every hour (choice C) is not directly related to managing eclampsia. Monitoring blood pressure, pulse, and respiration every 4 hours (choice D) is important but not as immediate as ensuring airway patency.

2. A nurse is caring for an infant who has signs of neonatal abstinence syndrome. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Provide a calm environment
• B. Monitor blood glucose levels every hour
• C. Initiate seizure precautions
• D. Place the infant on their back with legs extended

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Initiating seizure precautions is crucial when caring for an infant with neonatal abstinence syndrome due to the increased risk of seizures. Providing a calm environment (Choice A) is important to reduce stimulation as these infants may be irritable. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice B) is not typically a priority in neonatal abstinence syndrome unless specific signs or symptoms suggest the need for this assessment. Placing the infant on their back with legs extended (Choice D) does not directly address the potential complications associated with neonatal abstinence syndrome, such as seizures.

3. A client is 4 hours postpartum and is experiencing hypovolemic shock. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer indomethacin
• B. Insert a second 22-gauge IV catheter.
• C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• D. Administer oxygen at 4L/min via nasal cannula.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hypovolemic shock, there is decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Administering oxygen at 4L/min via nasal cannula can help improve oxygenation and support tissue perfusion. Indomethacin (Choice A) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug and is not indicated in the management of hypovolemic shock. Inserting a second 22-gauge IV catheter (Choice B) may be necessary for fluid resuscitation, but oxygen administration takes precedence. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter (Choice C) may be considered for monitoring urinary output, but it is not the priority action in managing hypovolemic shock.

4. Do neural tube defects cause an elevation in the alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level in the mother’s blood?

• A. Yes
• B. No
• C. Possibly
• D. Never

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Yes, neural tube defects can cause an elevation in AFP levels in the mother’s blood. AFP levels are often used as a screening marker during pregnancy to detect neural tube defects. Choice B is incorrect because an elevation in AFP levels can indeed occur in the presence of neural tube defects. Choice C is not the best option as it leaves room for uncertainty when the relationship between neural tube defects and AFP elevation is well-established. Choice D is incorrect as neural tube defects are known to influence AFP levels in the maternal blood.

5. A client at 26 weeks gestation was informed this morning that she has an elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level. After the healthcare provider leaves the room, the client asks what she should do next. What information should the nurse provide?

• A. Reassure the client that the AFP results are likely to be a false reading.
• B. Explain that a sonogram should be scheduled for definitive results.
• C. Inform her that a repeat alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test should be evaluated.
• D. Discuss options for intrauterine surgical correction of congenital defects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated AFP level during pregnancy can indicate potential fetal anomalies. Further evaluation is necessary to confirm the findings and assess the need for additional interventions. Scheduling a sonogram is the appropriate next step as it can provide more definitive results and help identify any underlying issues. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the elevated AFP level as a false reading without further investigation can lead to missing important information about the baby's health. Choice C is not the best immediate action, as scheduling a sonogram would provide more detailed information than just repeating the AFP test. Choice D is incorrect as discussing intrauterine surgical correction is premature at this stage and not typically indicated based solely on an elevated AFP level.

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