Nursing Elites

1. Mark, 9 months old, is given oral rehydration solution because of diarrhea with some dehydration. In your follow-up visit, you observed that Mark's eyes become puffy. Which one of the following would you advise Mark's mother?

• A. continue giving ORS but more slowly
• B. show mother how much solution to give
• C. stop ORS and give plain water or milk
• D. reassess patient to determine how much ORS to give

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, observing puffy eyes in a child being treated with oral rehydration solution may indicate fluid overload. Continuing to give ORS but more slowly is the correct course of action as it helps manage hydration without overloading fluids. Choice B is not the best option in this situation as the issue is not about the quantity of the solution, but the rate of administration. Choice C is incorrect because plain water or milk is not a suitable alternative for rehydration in cases of dehydration. Choice D is also incorrect as reassessing the patient does not directly address the issue of puffy eyes, which suggests a need to adjust the administration of ORS.

2. The nurse administers a booster dose of DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis) vaccine to an infant. Which level of prevention is the nurse implementing?

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Tertiary prevention.
• C. Secondary prevention.
• D. Primary nursing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Administering a booster dose of DTaP vaccine to an infant is an example of primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent disease or injury before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Tertiary prevention focuses on reducing the impact of a disease or injury that has already occurred, while secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment to prevent the progression of disease. Choice B, tertiary prevention, is incorrect as it deals with managing the consequences of a disease rather than preventing it. Choice C, secondary prevention, is also incorrect as it focuses on early detection and treatment rather than vaccination to prevent the disease. Choice D, primary nursing, is unrelated to the level of prevention being implemented in this scenario.

3. Which level of care serves as a referral center for primary health facilities?

• A. Secondary level health care
• B. Primary health care
• C. Tertiary level care
• D. Intermediate level care

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Secondary level health care is the correct answer as it serves as a referral center for primary health facilities. Primary health care refers to basic health services provided in the community setting. Tertiary level care involves specialized services like hospitals with advanced medical equipment and expertise. Intermediate level care is not a standard term in the hierarchy of health care services.

4. The healthcare provider would expect which eating disorder to have the greatest fluctuations in potassium?

• A. Binge eating disorder
• B. Anorexia nervosa
• C. Bulimia
• D. Purge syndrome

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bulimia. Bulimia involves cycles of binge eating and purging, where individuals may induce vomiting or use laxatives and diuretics. These purging behaviors can lead to significant fluctuations in potassium levels due to electrolyte imbalances caused by excessive loss of potassium through vomiting and purging. In contrast, Binge eating disorder (A) does not involve purging behaviors, so it is less likely to cause significant potassium fluctuations. Anorexia nervosa (B) is characterized by severe food restriction rather than purging, leading to a different pattern of electrolyte imbalances. Purge syndrome (D) is not a recognized eating disorder and is not associated with specific patterns of potassium fluctuations seen in bulimia.

5. During the beginning shift assessment of a client with asthma who is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute, the nurse would be most concerned about which unreported finding?

• A. Pulse oximetry reading of 89%
• B. Crackles at the base of the lungs on auscultation
• C. Rapid shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes
• D. Excessive thirst with a dry cracked tongue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rapid, shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes are concerning as they indicate a potential worsening of the client's asthma. This finding suggests airway narrowing, which can lead to respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is required to address this respiratory distress. A pulse oximetry reading of 89% is low and indicates hypoxemia, but the respiratory pattern described in option C takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status. Crackles at the base of the lungs suggest fluid accumulation, which is important but not as immediately critical as the respiratory distress in asthma. Excessive thirst and a dry cracked tongue may indicate dehydration, which is relevant but not as urgent as the respiratory compromise presented in option C.

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