the nurse enters the room as a 3 year old is having a generalized seizure which intervention should the nurse do first
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Practice Exam

1. The healthcare professional enters the room as a 3-year-old is having a generalized seizure. Which intervention should the healthcare professional do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing the child on the side is the priority intervention during a generalized seizure as it helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration. Clearing the area of any hazards is important but should come after ensuring the child's safety. Restraining the child is not recommended during a seizure as it can lead to injury. Giving the prescribed anticonvulsant is important but should not be the first action during an ongoing seizure.

2. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which of the following lab values would be consistent with this diagnosis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elevated creatinine phosphokinase (CPK). Elevated CPK levels indicate muscle damage, including damage to the cardiac muscle, which aligns with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Choice A, low serum albumin, is not directly related to myocardial infarction. Choice B, high serum cholesterol, is more associated with conditions like atherosclerosis rather than acute myocardial infarction. Choice C, abnormally low white blood cell count, is typically not a lab value associated with myocardial infarction; instead, it could suggest other conditions like infections or bone marrow issues.

3. The emphasis of community health nursing is on:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Community health nursing primarily focuses on preventive measures and promoting overall health within a community. Choice A is incorrect as treatment is not the main emphasis. Choice C is incorrect as identification and assessment are steps that may be involved but not the main focus. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to the illness end rather than the preventive end of the wellness-illness continuum.

4. Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.

5. During the beginning shift assessment of a client with asthma who is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute, the nurse would be most concerned about which unreported finding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rapid, shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes are concerning as they indicate a potential worsening of the client's asthma. This finding suggests airway narrowing, which can lead to respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is required to address this respiratory distress. A pulse oximetry reading of 89% is low and indicates hypoxemia, but the respiratory pattern described in option C takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status. Crackles at the base of the lungs suggest fluid accumulation, which is important but not as immediately critical as the respiratory distress in asthma. Excessive thirst and a dry cracked tongue may indicate dehydration, which is relevant but not as urgent as the respiratory compromise presented in option C.

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