HESI LPN
Medical Surgical HESI
1. Laboratory findings indicate that a client’s serum potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer potassium supplements orally.
- B. Increase the client's dietary potassium intake.
- C. Inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement.
- D. Monitor the client's ECG continuously.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L is critically low, indicating severe hypokalemia. In this situation, it is essential for the nurse to inform the healthcare provider promptly about the need for potassium replacement. Administering potassium supplements orally or increasing dietary potassium intake is not appropriate in cases of critically low potassium levels as immediate and precise replacement is necessary. Monitoring the client's ECG continuously is important in severe cases of hypokalemia, but the priority action should be to inform the healthcare provider for further management and treatment.
2. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to perform before ambulating a client with a history of syncope?
- A. Pedal pulses
- B. Breath sounds
- C. Oxygen saturation
- D. Blood pressure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Blood pressure.' It is crucial to check the client's blood pressure before ambulating them, especially if they have a history of syncope. Monitoring blood pressure helps to prevent falls by ensuring that the client's blood pressure is stable enough to tolerate the activity. Choices A, B, and C are not as critical in this scenario. Checking pedal pulses, breath sounds, or oxygen saturation is important but not as crucial as assessing blood pressure when preparing to ambulate a client with a history of syncope.
3. The nurse should hold the next scheduled dose of a client's haloperidol (Haldol) based on which assessment finding(s)?
- A. Dizziness when standing.
- B. Shuffling gait and hand tremors.
- C. Urinary retention.
- D. Fever of 102°F.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A fever (D) may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially fatal complication of antipsychotics. The healthcare provider should be contacted before administering the next dose of Haldol. Dizziness when standing (A), shuffling gait and hand tremors (B), and urinary retention (C) are all adverse effects of Haldol that, while concerning, do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to the potential severity of NMS indicated by a fever.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed sitagliptin. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Take this medication with meals.
- B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed sitagliptin is to report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider. Sitagliptin is generally taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Therefore, choice A, 'Take this medication with meals,' is incorrect. Sitagliptin does not have specific interactions with alcohol, so there is no need to advise the client to avoid alcohol, making choice B incorrect. Taking sitagliptin on an empty stomach is not recommended, so choice C is also incorrect. Pancreatitis is a rare but serious side effect of sitagliptin, so it is crucial for the client to report any signs or symptoms to their healthcare provider promptly.
5. A key component of primary prevention strategies is:
- A. aggressive interventions
- B. detection
- C. culture
- D. education
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: education.' Education plays a vital role in primary prevention strategies by empowering individuals with knowledge and skills to prevent the onset of diseases. Through education, people can make informed decisions about their health, adopt healthy behaviors, and engage in preventive measures. Choice A, 'aggressive interventions,' is incorrect as primary prevention focuses on proactive measures to avoid the development of diseases rather than aggressive reactive interventions. Choice B, 'detection,' is more aligned with secondary prevention, which involves early identification of diseases. Choice C, 'culture,' while important in shaping health behaviors, is not a key component specifically in primary prevention strategies.