laboratory findings indicate that a clients serum potassium levels is 25 meql what action should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

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Medical Surgical HESI

1. Laboratory findings indicate that a client’s serum potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L is critically low, indicating severe hypokalemia. In this situation, it is essential for the nurse to inform the healthcare provider promptly about the need for potassium replacement. Administering potassium supplements orally or increasing dietary potassium intake is not appropriate in cases of critically low potassium levels as immediate and precise replacement is necessary. Monitoring the client's ECG continuously is important in severe cases of hypokalemia, but the priority action should be to inform the healthcare provider for further management and treatment.

2. What should the nurse assess in an infant who has been diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. In hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, a key assessment finding is an olive-shaped mass in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, to the right of the midline. This mass is palpable and represents the hypertrophied pyloric muscle. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because although they may be present in infants with feeding problems, the definitive assessment for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is the presence of an olive-shaped mass on the right side of the abdomen, not a history of diarrhea, gastric pain, or poor appetite.

3. On the first postoperative day, the nurse finds an older male client disoriented and trying to climb over the bed railing. Previously, he was oriented to person, place, and time on admission. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention the nurse should implement first is to determine the client’s blood pressure. Assessing the blood pressure is crucial in this situation to rule out physiological causes like hypotension leading to the client's disorientation. Administering a sedative (Choice A) without understanding the underlying cause may worsen the situation. Applying soft restraints (Choice C) should not be the initial action and can be considered later if necessary. Calling for assistance (Choice D) may be needed eventually, but assessing the client's blood pressure takes precedence to address the immediate concern.

4. A client with a spinal cord injury at the level of T1 is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia. Which symptom is indicative of this condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries at T6 or above. It is characterized by a sudden onset of severe hypertension, pounding headache, profuse sweating, nasal congestion, and flushing of the skin above the level of injury. The severe headache is a key symptom resulting from uncontrolled hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as autonomic dysreflexia typically presents with hypertension, not hypotension, tachycardia, or flushed skin below the level of injury.

5. The nurse explains to the parents of a child with developmental hip dysplasia that the application of a Pavlik harness is necessary. In what position will the harness hold the child's femurs?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Abduction. The use of the Pavlik harness is to maintain the hips in abduction for 4 to 6 months to treat developmental hip dysplasia. This position helps in stabilizing the hip joint and promoting proper growth and development. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the Pavlik harness specifically aims to hold the child's femurs in abduction, not adduction, flexion, or extension.

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