a client admitted with left sided heart failure has a heart rate of 110 beats per minute and is becoming increasingly dyspneic which additional assess
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1. A client admitted with left-sided heart failure has a heart rate of 110 beats per minute and is becoming increasingly dyspneic. Which additional assessment finding by the nurse supports the client’s admitting diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Crackles in the lung bases. Crackles in the lung bases are indicative of pulmonary congestion, which is a classic sign of left-sided heart failure. Left-sided heart failure leads to a backup of blood into the lungs, causing fluid leakage into the alveoli and resulting in crackles upon auscultation. Choices A, C, and D are less specific to left-sided heart failure. Jugular vein distention can be seen in right-sided heart failure, peripheral edema can be seen in both right and left-sided heart failure, and bounding peripheral pulses are more indicative of conditions like hyperthyroidism or anemia rather than specifically supporting left-sided heart failure.

2. Based on this strip, what is the correct interpretation of this rhythm?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct interpretation of the rhythm strip is atrial fibrillation. This arrhythmia is characterized by an irregular heartbeat and the absence of distinct P waves. Choice B, premature atrial fibrillation, is incorrect as there is no indication of premature beats in the strip. Choice C, AV block, is also incorrect as there is no evidence of conduction delays between the atria and ventricles. Choice D, ventricular tachycardia, is not supported by the absence of wide QRS complexes typically seen in this arrhythmia.

3. A client with COPD is receiving home oxygen therapy. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important instruction for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching for a client with COPD receiving home oxygen therapy is to ensure the oxygen tank is stored in a secure upright position. This is crucial to prevent accidents such as leaks or falls that can lead to serious injury or damage. Choice A is incorrect as increasing the oxygen flow rate during physical activity without a healthcare provider's guidance can be harmful. Choice B is incorrect as smoking near an oxygen source can cause a fire hazard. Choice C is incorrect as petroleum jelly is flammable and should not be used around oxygen due to the risk of combustion.

4. In the change of shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.' Stage 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and typically appear as shallow open ulcers with a red-pink wound bed. Choice B describes a stage 1 ulcer, where the skin is intact but shows non-blanchable redness. Choice C describes a stage 3 ulcer, with full-thickness tissue loss exposing fat. Choice D is characteristic of a stage 4 ulcer, where there is full-thickness tissue loss exposing bone, tendon, or muscle. Therefore, option A best fits the description of a stage 2 pressure ulcer.

5. What pathophysiologic process is producing the symptoms of gout in a client with sudden onset of big toe joint pain and swelling?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Gout is characterized by the deposition of uric acid crystals in the synovial fluid of joints, which triggers inflammation and pain. This process is known as crystal-induced arthritis. Choice B is incorrect as gout does not involve degeneration of joint cartilage. Choice C is incorrect as gout is not caused by an infection of the joint space. Choice D is incorrect as gout does not result from increased synovial fluid but rather from the deposition of uric acid crystals.

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