a woman with chronic osteoarthritis is complaining of knee pain which pathophysiological process is contributing to her pain
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HESI LPN

Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI

1. A woman with chronic osteoarthritis is complaining of knee pain. Which pathophysiological process is contributing to her pain?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In osteoarthritis, the breakdown of cartilage in the joints leads to chondrocyte injury, which results in the destruction of joint cartilage and the production of osteophytes. This process causes joint inflammation and pain. Choice A is incorrect because osteoarthritis primarily involves the articular cartilage rather than the synovial membrane. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the degeneration of cartilage but does not explain the specific pathophysiological process contributing to pain in osteoarthritis. Choice D is incorrect as the formation of uric acid crystals is characteristic of gout, not osteoarthritis.

2. A male client with muscular dystrophy fell in his home and is admitted with a right hip fracture. His right foot is cool, with palpable pedal pulses. Lungs are coarse with diminished bibasilar breath sounds. Vital signs are temperature 101 degrees F, heart rate 128 beats/minute, respirations 28 breaths/minute, and blood pressure 122/82. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering an antipyretic is the most important intervention. The client presents with an elevated temperature, tachycardia, and tachypnea, indicating a fever. Lowering the temperature with an antipyretic is crucial to prevent complications like dehydration, altered mental status, and increased oxygen demand. While assessing lower extremity circulation and oxygen saturation are important, addressing the elevated temperature takes priority in this scenario. Incentive spirometry may be beneficial but is not the priority compared to managing the fever.

3. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.

4. The mother of a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) asks why her child must be kept NPO. Which response would be the most correct?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because rapid respirations predispose to aspiration in a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis. Choice A is incorrect because epinephrine does not directly relate to the need for NPO status. Choice B is incorrect as hydration with IV fluids is not the primary reason for keeping the child NPO. Choice C is incorrect as the child being hungry is not the main concern when keeping a child NPO in this situation.

5. What should be included in the medical management of sickle cell crisis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provisions for adequate hydration and pain management. In managing a sickle cell crisis, it is essential to provide adequate hydration to prevent further sickling of red blood cells and ensure proper pain management to alleviate the severe pain associated with the crisis. While information for parents and home care may be important aspects of overall care, they are not specific to the immediate medical management of a sickle cell crisis. Administration of iron supplements is not recommended during a sickle cell crisis as it can potentially worsen the condition by promoting the production of more sickled red blood cells. Adequate oxygenation is crucial in sickle cell disease, but factor VIII is not typically part of the management of a sickle cell crisis.

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