Nursing Elites

1. James is an 18-month-old child who has had a cough for 7 days with no general danger signs, a temperature of 37.5°C, and a respiratory rate of 41 breaths per minute. How will you classify James' breathing?

• A. Slow breathing
• B. Fast breathing
• C. Normal breathing
• D. Very fast breathing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Normal breathing.' A respiratory rate of 41 breaths per minute is considered normal for an 18-month-old child. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a respiratory rate of 41 breaths per minute falls within the normal range for a child of James' age and does not indicate slow, fast, or very fast breathing.

2. A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Constipation
• B. Hypertension
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Pyridostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor used in myasthenia gravis, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Choice A, constipation, is not a common side effect of pyridostigmine. Choice B, hypertension, is unlikely as pyridostigmine is more likely to cause hypotension. Choice C, muscle weakness, is actually a symptom of myasthenia gravis itself and not a side effect of pyridostigmine.

3. What is the main focus of secondary prevention?

• A. Early detection and treatment
• B. Rehabilitation
• C. Health promotion
• D. Palliative care

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The main focus of secondary prevention is early detection and treatment of disease. This approach aims to identify health conditions in their early stages when they are easier to treat or manage effectively. Choice B, rehabilitation, is more aligned with restoring function after an illness or injury has occurred. Choice C, health promotion, concentrates on educating and empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to prevent the onset of diseases. Choice D, palliative care, is focused on providing comfort and improving the quality of life for individuals with serious illnesses or at the end of life, rather than on early detection and treatment.

4. What title should be given to this occupational health nurse job description? A registered nurse who establishes a provider network, recommends treatment plans that assure quality and efficacy while controlling costs, monitors outcomes, and maintains communication among all involved.

• A. manager
• B. researcher
• C. case manager
• D. health promotion specialist

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: case manager. A case manager in healthcare coordinates care, monitors outcomes, and ensures quality and cost-effectiveness. In this job description, the nurse is mainly focused on coordinating care, recommending treatment plans, monitoring outcomes, and maintaining communication among all involved, which aligns with the responsibilities of a case manager. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the job description does not primarily involve general management, research, or health promotion specialization.

5. Which of the following is an example of a social determinant of health?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Genetic mutations
• C. Housing conditions
• D. Age

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Housing conditions. Social determinants of health are the conditions in which people are born, grow, live, work, and age. Housing conditions directly impact health outcomes as they can affect exposure to toxins, safety, and overall well-being. Choice A, blood pressure, is a physiological measure and not a social determinant. Choice B, genetic mutations, relates to an individual's genetic makeup and is not influenced by social factors. Choice D, age, is a demographic factor and not a social determinant of health.

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