HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Exam
1. A key component of primary prevention strategies is:
- A. aggressive interventions
- B. detection
- C. culture
- D. education
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: education.' Education plays a vital role in primary prevention strategies by empowering individuals with knowledge and skills to prevent the onset of diseases. Through education, people can make informed decisions about their health, adopt healthy behaviors, and engage in preventive measures. Choice A, 'aggressive interventions,' is incorrect as primary prevention focuses on proactive measures to avoid the development of diseases rather than aggressive reactive interventions. Choice B, 'detection,' is more aligned with secondary prevention, which involves early identification of diseases. Choice C, 'culture,' while important in shaping health behaviors, is not a key component specifically in primary prevention strategies.
2. Under which level of primary health care workers does a rural sanitary inspector fall?
- A. Village health workers
- B. Intermediate level health workers
- C. Barangay health workers
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Rural sanitary inspectors are classified as intermediate level health workers. They are not categorized under village health workers or barangay health workers. Therefore, the correct answer is B.
3. A client has developed thrombophlebitis of the left leg. Which nursing intervention should be given the highest priority?
- A. Elevate leg on 2 pillows
- B. Apply support stockings
- C. Apply warm compresses
- D. Maintain complete bed rest
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention for a client with thrombophlebitis of the left leg is to elevate the leg on 2 pillows. Elevating the leg helps reduce swelling and pain associated with thrombophlebitis by promoting venous return. Applying support stockings (choice B) can be beneficial but is not the highest priority as elevation is more effective in the acute phase. Applying warm compresses (choice C) may worsen the condition by dilating the blood vessels, leading to increased pain and swelling. Maintaining complete bed rest (choice D) is important, but elevation takes precedence to improve circulation and reduce the risk of complications.
4. In a long term rehabilitation care unit a client with spinal cord injury complains of a pounding headache. The client is sitting in a wheelchair watching television in the assigned room. Further assessment by the nurse reveals excessive sweating, a splotchy rash, pilomotor erection, facial flushing, congested nasal passages and a heart rate of 50. The nurse should do which action next?
- A. Take the client's respirations, blood pressure (BP), temperature and then pupillary responses
- B. Place the client into the bed and administer the ordered PRN analgesic
- C. Check the client for bladder distention and the client's urinary catheter for kinks
- D. Turn the television off and then assist client to use relaxation techniques
Correct answer: C
Rationale: These symptoms suggest autonomic dysreflexia, often triggered by bladder distention.
5. An infant weighed 7 pounds 8 ounces at birth. If growth occurs at a normal rate, what would be the expected weight at 6 months of age?
- A. Double the birth weight
- B. Triple the birth weight
- C. Gain 6 ounces each week
- D. Add 2 pounds each month
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Double the birth weight.' Infants typically double their birth weight by 6 months of age. This is a common milestone in healthy infant growth and development. Choice B is incorrect because tripling the birth weight would be excessive and not in line with normal growth patterns. Choice C, 'Gain 6 ounces each week,' is not accurate as infant growth is not linear each week. Choice D, 'Add 2 pounds each month,' is also incorrect as this rate of growth would be too rapid and unrealistic for healthy infant development.
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