Nursing Elites

1. A key component of primary prevention strategies is:

• A. aggressive interventions
• B. detection
• C. culture
• D. education

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: education.' Education plays a vital role in primary prevention strategies by empowering individuals with knowledge and skills to prevent the onset of diseases. Through education, people can make informed decisions about their health, adopt healthy behaviors, and engage in preventive measures. Choice A, 'aggressive interventions,' is incorrect as primary prevention focuses on proactive measures to avoid the development of diseases rather than aggressive reactive interventions. Choice B, 'detection,' is more aligned with secondary prevention, which involves early identification of diseases. Choice C, 'culture,' while important in shaping health behaviors, is not a key component specifically in primary prevention strategies.

2. During which phase of the community organizing process are the leaders or groups given training to develop their knowledge, skills, and attitudes in managing their own programs?

• A. Sustenance and strengthening phase
• B. Pre-entry phase
• C. Organizing-building phase
• D. Entry phase

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, the organizing-building phase. This phase involves providing training to leaders and groups to develop their knowledge, skills, and attitudes in managing their own programs. Choice A, the sustenance and strengthening phase, focuses more on maintaining and enhancing existing programs rather than training. Choice B, the pre-entry phase, occurs before actual organizing and training take place. Choice D, the entry phase, is about initiating the community organizing process, not specifically about training leaders and groups.

3. Care provided by specialists in health facilities such as medical centers, regional, and provincial hospitals falls under which level of care?

• A. Secondary level care
• B. Primary care
• C. Tertiary care
• D. Intermediate care

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tertiary care is the correct answer because it involves specialized care provided by medical centers and regional or provincial hospitals. Primary care (Choice B) refers to basic healthcare services usually delivered by general practitioners, nurses, and other healthcare professionals. Secondary care (Choice A) involves specialized services provided by medical specialists and other health professionals who generally do not have first contact with patients. Intermediate care (Choice D) is not a recognized level of care in the typical healthcare system hierarchy; it may cause confusion as it's not a standard term used to describe levels of care.

4. While discussing the science of nursing, the nurse identifies the domain of nursing theory. Which linkages should the nurse provide to describe nursing's paradigm?

• A. The person, the environment or situation, and health.
• B. Stress reduction, self-care, and a systems model.
• C. Curative care, restorative care, and terminal care.
• D. Self-actualization, fundamental needs, and belonging.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The person, the environment or situation, and health.' In nursing theory, the paradigm includes these core components: the person receiving care, the environment or situation influencing care, and the goal of achieving optimal health outcomes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the fundamental aspects of nursing theory and its paradigm.

5. While assessing an Rh-positive newborn whose mother is Rh-negative, the nurse recognizes the risk for hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following should be reported immediately?

• A. Jaundice evident at 26 hours
• B. Hematocrit of 55%
• C. Serum bilirubin of 12 mg/dL
• D. Positive Coombs test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bilirubin level of 12 mg/dL in a newborn is concerning and can indicate a significant risk of hyperbilirubinemia, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent complications like kernicterus. Jaundice at 26 hours (Choice A) is a symptom, not a laboratory result, and needs monitoring but not an immediate report. Hematocrit of 55% (Choice B) may be elevated but is not indicative of hyperbilirubinemia. A positive Coombs test (Choice D) indicates the presence of antibodies on the newborn's red blood cells but does not directly correlate with the risk of hyperbilirubinemia.

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