Nursing Elites

1. A key component of primary prevention strategies is:

• A. aggressive interventions
• B. detection
• C. culture
• D. education

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: education.' Education plays a vital role in primary prevention strategies by empowering individuals with knowledge and skills to prevent the onset of diseases. Through education, people can make informed decisions about their health, adopt healthy behaviors, and engage in preventive measures. Choice A, 'aggressive interventions,' is incorrect as primary prevention focuses on proactive measures to avoid the development of diseases rather than aggressive reactive interventions. Choice B, 'detection,' is more aligned with secondary prevention, which involves early identification of diseases. Choice C, 'culture,' while important in shaping health behaviors, is not a key component specifically in primary prevention strategies.

2. A client with schizophrenia is receiving haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Extrapyramidal symptoms
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Extrapyramidal symptoms. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms such as tardive dyskinesia and akathisia. These side effects are common with the use of typical antipsychotics. Choice A, Tachycardia, is not a common side effect of haloperidol. Choice B, Hypotension, is also not a typical side effect associated with haloperidol use. Choice D, Hyperglycemia, is not directly linked to haloperidol administration, as it is more commonly associated with other medications like atypical antipsychotics or certain medical conditions.

3. In the immediate postoperative period for a cleft lip repair in a 2-month-old infant, which nursing approach should be the priority?

• A. Remove protective arm devices one at a time for short periods with supervision
• B. Initiate oral feedings when alert
• C. Introduce the parents to the suture line cleansing protocol
• D. Position the infant on the back after feedings throughout the day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing approach in the immediate postoperative period for a cleft lip repair in an infant is to remove protective arm devices one at a time for short periods with supervision. This approach helps prevent injury to the surgical site while ensuring the infant's comfort and safety. Choice B is incorrect as initiating oral feedings immediately after surgery may not be appropriate and could compromise the surgical site. Choice C is incorrect as introducing parents to the suture line cleansing protocol is important but not the immediate priority. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the infant on the back after feedings is not specific to the immediate postoperative period for a cleft lip repair.

4. A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Constipation
• B. Hypertension
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Pyridostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor used in myasthenia gravis, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Choice A, constipation, is not a common side effect of pyridostigmine. Choice B, hypertension, is unlikely as pyridostigmine is more likely to cause hypotension. Choice C, muscle weakness, is actually a symptom of myasthenia gravis itself and not a side effect of pyridostigmine.

5. Which of the following is used to monitor specific groups eligible for a particular DOH program?

• A. Family treatment record
• B. Target Client list
• C. Reporting forms
• D. Output record

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Target Client list. The Target Client list is specifically designed to monitor groups that are eligible for a particular DOH program. It helps in identifying and tracking individuals or populations that qualify for the said program. Choice A, Family treatment record, is incorrect because it pertains to the medical history and treatment information of a particular family, not eligibility monitoring. Choice C, Reporting forms, is incorrect as they are used for documenting and submitting information, not for monitoring eligibility. Choice D, Output record, is also incorrect as it refers to the results or outcomes produced by a system, not for monitoring eligibility.

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