Nursing Elites

1. A key component of primary prevention strategies is:

• A. aggressive interventions
• B. detection
• C. culture
• D. education

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: education.' Education plays a vital role in primary prevention strategies by empowering individuals with knowledge and skills to prevent the onset of diseases. Through education, people can make informed decisions about their health, adopt healthy behaviors, and engage in preventive measures. Choice A, 'aggressive interventions,' is incorrect as primary prevention focuses on proactive measures to avoid the development of diseases rather than aggressive reactive interventions. Choice B, 'detection,' is more aligned with secondary prevention, which involves early identification of diseases. Choice C, 'culture,' while important in shaping health behaviors, is not a key component specifically in primary prevention strategies.

2. Several employees who have a 10-year or longer history of smoking ask the occupational nurse for assistance with smoking cessation. The RN develops a 2-month program that includes weekly group sessions on lifestyle changes and use of OTC products. Which measurement provides the best indication of the program's effectiveness?

• A. Encourage the employees to disclose if they have joined another smoking cessation group.
• B. Ask the employees to inform the group if they stop smoking and if they start back up again.
• C. Survey the employees about their smoking habits.
• D. Observe if the employees are smoking in the designated smoking areas.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Surveying the employees about their smoking habits provides measurable data on program effectiveness. By collecting data directly from the employees through surveys, the occupational nurse can track changes in smoking habits, frequency, and quantity of cigarettes smoked. This direct feedback allows for a more accurate assessment of the program's impact on smoking cessation. Choices A and B rely on self-disclosure and may not provide reliable or objective data. Choice D does not directly measure changes in smoking habits but rather observes behavior in designated areas, which may not reflect overall smoking cessation progress.

3. A client is scheduled to have a blood test for cholesterol and triglycerides the next day. The nurse would tell the client

• A. ''Be sure to eat a fat-free diet until the test.''
• B. ''Do not eat or drink anything but water for 12 hours before the blood test.''
• C. ''Have the blood drawn within 2 hours of eating breakfast.''
• D. ''Stay at the laboratory so 2 blood samples can be drawn an hour apart.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fasting for at least 12 hours is necessary before a cholesterol and triglyceride test to ensure accurate results by avoiding fluctuations that can occur after eating. Choice A is incorrect because a fat-free diet is not required; fasting is. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests having the test right after eating, which can affect the results. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to stay at the laboratory for 2 blood samples unless specifically instructed by a healthcare provider.

4. A client with hypothyroidism is receiving levothyroxine (Synthroid). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Weight gain
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. Levothyroxine, used to treat hypothyroidism, can lead to increased metabolism, causing tachycardia as a side effect. Monitoring for tachycardia is essential to ensure the client's safety. Choices B, Hypotension, and C, Weight gain, are incorrect as levothyroxine is not typically associated with causing hypotension or weight gain. Choice D, Bradycardia, is also incorrect as levothyroxine-induced bradycardia is not a common side effect.

5. A client with a history of seizures is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Gingival hyperplasia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for this side effect as it can lead to oral health issues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Phenytoin does not typically cause hypertension, hyperglycemia, or hypokalemia as common side effects.

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