Nursing Elites

1. In the implementation of the national family planning program, the government assumes the role of a:

• A. decision-maker in the practice of family planning methods
• B. regulator
• C. facilitator
• D. dictator

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'facilitator.' In the implementation of a national family planning program, the government plays a role as a facilitator, meaning it helps to support and enable the access to family planning services and information. The government's role is to ensure that services are available, accessible, and of good quality, rather than making decisions for individuals or regulating them. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the government's role is not to make decisions on behalf of individuals (decision-maker), strictly regulate family planning practices (regulator), or impose decisions without considering individual choices (dictator).

2. What does the infant mortality rate measure?

• A. dying for every thousand of the population
• B. dying from 0-5 years old in every thousand population
• C. dying in the first 4 weeks in every thousand children born alive that year
• D. dying before 1 year old in every thousand children born alive that year

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The infant mortality rate measures the number of deaths occurring before 1 year old per 1000 live births. This is a crucial indicator of a population's health status and access to healthcare for infants. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the infant mortality rate specifically focuses on deaths within the first year of life, not the entire population or different age ranges.

3. What is usually the first contact between community members and other levels of health facilities called?

• A. Secondary level health care
• B. Primary health care
• C. Tertiary level care
• D. Intermediate level care

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Primary health care. Primary health care is the initial point of contact between community members and the healthcare system. This level of care focuses on preventive and primary treatment services. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because secondary, tertiary, and intermediate care levels are more specialized and are usually accessed after primary care, depending on the complexity of the health issue.

4. A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Constipation
• B. Hypertension
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Pyridostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor used in myasthenia gravis, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Choice A, constipation, is not a common side effect of pyridostigmine. Choice B, hypertension, is unlikely as pyridostigmine is more likely to cause hypotension. Choice C, muscle weakness, is actually a symptom of myasthenia gravis itself and not a side effect of pyridostigmine.

5. The nurse uses the DRG (Diagnosis Related Group) manual to

• A. Classify nursing diagnoses from the client's health history
• B. Identify findings related to a medical diagnosis
• C. Determine reimbursement for a medical diagnosis
• D. Implement nursing care based on case management protocol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The DRG manual is used to determine the reimbursement rate for medical diagnoses and treatments under the prospective payment system used by healthcare facilities. Choice A is incorrect because the DRG manual is not used to classify nursing diagnoses, but rather to group medical diagnoses for billing purposes. Choice B is incorrect as the DRG manual is not used to identify findings related to medical diagnoses, but rather to standardize payments for medical services. Choice D is incorrect as the DRG manual is not used to implement nursing care based on case management protocol, but rather to set reimbursement rates.

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