Nursing Elites

1. A public health nurse is working with a community to develop a disaster response plan. Which of the following is the priority action?

• A. Identifying available resources and services
• B. Conducting disaster drills
• C. Educating the community about disaster preparedness
• D. Developing a communication plan

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Identifying available resources and services is the priority action when developing a disaster response plan. This step is crucial as it helps the community understand what resources and services are already in place and what additional support may be needed during a disaster. Conducting disaster drills, educating the community about disaster preparedness, and developing a communication plan are important steps in disaster preparedness but come after identifying available resources and services. Without knowing the available resources, it would be challenging to effectively plan and respond to a disaster.

2. The client with acute hypocalcemia is admitted to the unit. Nursing action should include:

• A. Implement seizure precautions
• B. Assess for hypoglycemia
• C. Monitor for visual changes
• D. Observe for muscle weakness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a client with acute hypocalcemia is to implement seizure precautions. Hypocalcemia can lead to tetany and seizures due to neuromuscular irritability. Assessing for hypoglycemia (choice B) is not directly related to hypocalcemia. Monitoring for visual changes (choice C) is more indicative of conditions like hyperglycemia or retinal disorders. Observing for muscle weakness (choice D) is a common symptom of hypocalcemia but does not address the immediate risk of seizures, which is why implementing seizure precautions is the priority nursing action.

3. Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?

• A. Auditory gurgling
• B. Inspiratory laryngeal stridor
• C. Auditory expiratory wheezing
• D. Frequent dry coughing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.

4. A client with asthma is receiving albuterol (Proventil). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Albuterol can cause tachycardia as a side effect due to its stimulant effect on the heart. It acts as a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, leading to increased heart rate. Hypoglycemia (choice A) is not a common side effect of albuterol. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is also not typically associated with albuterol use. Hypotension (choice D) is less likely to occur as albuterol usually causes tachycardia rather than hypotension.

5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is receiving methotrexate (Rheumatrex). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Leukopenia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leukopenia. Methotrexate, used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, can lead to bone marrow suppression, resulting in leukopenia. This condition increases the risk of infections due to decreased white blood cell count. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because methotrexate is not known to cause hyperglycemia, hypertension, or hypokalemia as its primary adverse effects.

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