Nursing Elites

1. During discharge teaching, the nurse discusses the parameters for weight monitoring with a client recently diagnosed with heart failure (HF). Which information is most important for the client to acknowledge?

• A. Weigh at the same time every day
• B. Report weight gain of 2 pounds (0.9kg) in 24 hours
• C. Maintain a daily weight record
• D. Limit dietary salt intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Reporting a weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours is crucial for detecting fluid retention or worsening heart failure. This rapid weight gain indicates possible fluid overload, which can be a sign of worsening HF. Option A is not as critical as the timing of weighing can vary. Option C is important for tracking trends but does not emphasize the significance of a sudden weight gain. Option D is relevant for managing HF but does not address the immediate need for reporting rapid weight gain.

2. An experienced nurse tells the nurse-manager that working with a new graduate is impossible because the new graduate will not listen to suggestions. The new graduate comes to the nurse-manager describing the senior nurse’s attitude as challenging and offensive. What action is best for the nurse manager to take?

• A. Have both nurses meet separately with the staff mental health consultant
• B. Listen actively to both nurses and offer suggestions to solve the dilemma
• C. Ask the senior nurse to examine mentoring strategies used with the new graduate
• D. Ask the nurses to meet with the nurse-manager to identify ways of working together

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the best action for the nurse manager to take is to ask the nurses to meet with the nurse-manager to identify ways of working together. This approach promotes open communication, facilitates understanding of both perspectives, and encourages collaborative problem-solving. Option A is not ideal as involving a mental health consultant may be premature for this situation. Option B, although helpful in listening to both parties, does not directly address the need for collaboration. Option C focuses on the senior nurse's mentoring strategies only, rather than addressing the conflict between the two nurses.

3. When lactulose (Cephulac) 30 ml QID is prescribed for a male client with advanced cirrhosis, and he complains that it causes diarrhea, what action should the nurse take in response to the client’s statement?

• A. Explain that diarrhea is expected, but the drug reduces ammonia levels
• B. Document that the client is non-compliant with his treatment plan
• C. Tell the client to be concerned about more significant side effects of this drug
• D. Obtain a prescription for loperamide (Imodium) 4mg PO PRN diarrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Diarrhea is an expected side effect of lactulose when used to reduce ammonia levels in cirrhosis. It helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, thereby reducing its levels in the blood. Option B is incorrect because it is essential for the nurse to educate the client about the expected side effects of the medication rather than assuming non-compliance. Option C is incorrect as it instills unnecessary fear in the client by suggesting more significant side effects without addressing the current concern. Option D is incorrect as loperamide should not be given automatically for diarrhea caused by lactulose, as the diarrhea is a therapeutic effect of the medication in this context.

4. A client who had a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is paralyzed on the left side of the body and has developed a Stage II pressure ulcer on the left hip. Which nursing diagnosis describes this client’s current health status?

• A. Risk for impaired tissue integrity related to impaired physical mobility
• B. Impaired skin integrity related to altered circulation and pressure
• C. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to inability to move self in bed
• D. Impaired physical mobility related to the left-side paralysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Impaired skin integrity related to altered circulation and pressure.' This nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate as it directly addresses the Stage II pressure ulcer on the left hip, which is caused by altered circulation and pressure due to the client's left-side paralysis. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on the risk for impaired tissue integrity rather than the current issue of impaired skin integrity. Choice C is incorrect as ineffective tissue perfusion is not the primary issue in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as it only addresses the left-side paralysis and not the pressure ulcer or altered circulation.

5. What should be the school nurse's first action after being notified that Child A has bitten Child B on the arm, resulting in broken skin but no bleeding?

• A. Apply antibiotic cream to Child B’s arm immediately
• B. Determine if Child A has a history of Hepatitis C or HIV
• C. Determine the date of Child B’s latest tetanus booster
• D. Wash Child B’s arm thoroughly with soap and water

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the school nurse to take in this situation is to wash Child B’s arm thoroughly with soap and water. Washing the wound immediately is crucial to reduce the risk of infection from the bite. Applying antibiotic cream may come after cleaning the wound. Determining Child A's medical history or checking Child B's tetanus status is important but not the immediate priority when dealing with a bite wound.

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