Nursing Elites

1. In preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure, the nurse notes that the client's B-Type Naturetic peptide (BNP) is elevated. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Measure the client's oxygen saturation before taking further action
• B. Administer a PRN dose of nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)
• C. Administer the dose of furosemide as scheduled
• D. Hold the dose of furosemide until contacting the healthcare provider

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose of furosemide is appropriate when a client with heart failure has an elevated BNP level. BNP elevation indicates fluid overload, and furosemide is a diuretic that helps in reducing excess fluid. Measuring the client's oxygen saturation (Choice A) is not directly related to addressing fluid overload. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice B) is not indicated for managing elevated BNP levels. Holding the furosemide dose (Choice D) would delay appropriate treatment for fluid overload.

2. A client who had a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) is paralyzed on the left side of the body and has developed a Stage II pressure ulcer on the left hip. Which nursing diagnosis describes this client's current health status?

• A. Risk for impaired tissue integrity related to impaired physical mobility
• B. Impaired skin integrity related to altered circulation and pressure
• C. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to inability to move self in bed
• D. Impaired physical mobility related to the left side paralysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis for this client is 'Impaired skin integrity related to altered circulation and pressure.' The client's Stage II pressure ulcer on the left hip is a clear indication of impaired skin integrity resulting from altered circulation and pressure due to immobility. Choice A is incorrect because the client already has a pressure ulcer, indicating an actual impairment rather than a risk. Choice C is incorrect as ineffective tissue perfusion is not the primary issue in this case. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses solely on the paralysis and not the actual skin integrity issue.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling dizzy and has a blood glucose level of 50 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer 1 mg of glucagon intramuscularly
• B. Provide 15 grams of carbohydrate
• C. Check the client's blood pressure
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Providing 15 grams of carbohydrate is the initial action to treat hypoglycemia. When a client with diabetes mellitus experiences symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as dizziness and with a blood glucose level of 50 mg/dl, the immediate priority is to raise their blood sugar levels quickly. Administering carbohydrates, such as fruit juice or glucose tablets, is the recommended first step to reverse hypoglycemia. Administering glucagon intramuscularly is usually reserved for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unconscious or unable to swallow. Checking the client's blood pressure is important but not the primary intervention for hypoglycemia. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after the immediate management of hypoglycemia.

4. A client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF) has a 24-hour urine output of 400 ml. How much oral intake should the nurse allow this client to have during the next 24 hours?

• A. Encourage oral fluids as tolerated
• B. Decrease oral intake to 200 ml
• C. Allow the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake
• D. Limit oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF), the goal is to prevent fluid overload. Since the client has a low urine output of 400 ml in 24 hours, limiting oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml is appropriate. Encouraging unrestricted oral fluids (Choice A) can exacerbate fluid overload. Decreasing oral intake to 200 ml (Choice B) would be too restrictive and may lead to dehydration. Allowing the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake (Choice C) would not account for other sources of fluid intake and output, potentially resulting in fluid imbalance.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, International Normalized Ratio (INR). While INR is commonly used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy, in the case of heparin therapy, the Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the preferred test. Choice A, Prothrombin Time (PT), measures the activity of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not the best choice for monitoring heparin therapy. Choice D, Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT), is similar to PTT and is used to monitor heparin therapy, but PTT is the more specific test. Therefore, monitoring PTT is crucial in determining the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy.

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