HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam
1. In preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure, the nurse notes that the client's B-Type Naturetic peptide (BNP) is elevated. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Measure the client's oxygen saturation before taking further action
- B. Administer a PRN dose of nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)
- C. Administer the dose of furosemide as scheduled
- D. Hold the dose of furosemide until contacting the healthcare provider
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose of furosemide is appropriate when a client with heart failure has an elevated BNP level. BNP elevation indicates fluid overload, and furosemide is a diuretic that helps in reducing excess fluid. Measuring the client's oxygen saturation (Choice A) is not directly related to addressing fluid overload. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice B) is not indicated for managing elevated BNP levels. Holding the furosemide dose (Choice D) would delay appropriate treatment for fluid overload.
2. A 3-year-old boy is brought to the emergency center with dysphagia, drooling, a fever of 102°F, and stridor. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Place the child in a mist tent
- B. Obtain a sputum culture
- C. Prepare for an emergent tracheostomy
- D. Examine the child's oropharynx and report the findings to the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a 3-year-old boy presenting with dysphagia, drooling, fever, and stridor, the priority intervention should be to place the child in a mist tent. This intervention helps alleviate respiratory distress, providing immediate relief. Options B, C, and D are not as urgent as ensuring the child's airway is managed effectively. Obtaining a sputum culture, preparing for a tracheostomy, and examining the oropharynx can be done after stabilizing the child's respiratory status.
3. Oxygen at liters/min per nasal cannula PRN difficult breathing is prescribed for a client with pneumonia. Which nursing intervention is effective in preventing oxygen toxicity?
- A. Avoiding the administration of high levels of oxygen for extended periods.
- B. Administering a sedative at bedtime to slow the client's respiratory rate.
- C. Removing the nasal cannula during the night to prevent oxygen buildup.
- D. Running oxygen through a hydration source prior to administration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoiding the administration of high levels of oxygen for extended periods. Oxygen toxicity can occur when high levels of oxygen are given for a prolonged period. It is important to monitor and adjust the oxygen levels as needed to prevent toxicity. Choice B is incorrect because administering a sedative to slow the respiratory rate does not directly prevent oxygen toxicity. Choice C is incorrect as removing the nasal cannula during the night can compromise the client's oxygenation. Choice D is incorrect as running oxygen through a hydration source does not prevent oxygen toxicity; instead, it may introduce risks associated with the hydration source.
4. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for antibiotic treatment of a leg ulcer. Which signs and symptoms, indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS), should the nurse report to the healthcare provider? (Select one that doesn't apply.)
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Visual disturbances
- C. Presence of uremic frost
- D. Decreased mentation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Presence of uremic frost.' Increased heart rate, visual disturbances, and decreased mentation are all signs and symptoms indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS). Uremic frost, however, is not associated with HHNS but is a clinical finding seen in severe cases of chronic kidney disease. Therefore, the nurse should report the presence of uremic frost to the healthcare provider as a separate concern from HHNS.
5. A 2-year-old boy with short bowel syndrome has progressed to receiving enteral feedings only. Today his stools are occurring more frequently and have a more liquid consistency. His temperature is 102.2°F and he has vomited twice in the past four hours. Which assessment finding indicates that the child is becoming dehydrated?
- A. Occult blood in the stool
- B. Abdominal distention
- C. Elevated urine specific gravity
- D. Hyperactive bowel sounds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevated urine specific gravity is a sign of dehydration in children. In the scenario provided, the child is experiencing increased stool frequency, liquid consistency, fever, and vomiting, indicating fluid loss and potential dehydration. Occult blood in the stool may suggest gastrointestinal bleeding but is not a direct indicator of dehydration. Abdominal distention can be seen in various conditions and is not specific to dehydration. Hyperactive bowel sounds are more commonly associated with increased bowel motility, not necessarily dehydration.
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