Nursing Elites

1. In preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure, the nurse notes that the client's B-Type Naturetic peptide (BNP) is elevated. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Measure the client's oxygen saturation before taking further action
• B. Administer a PRN dose of nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)
• C. Administer the dose of furosemide as scheduled
• D. Hold the dose of furosemide until contacting the healthcare provider

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose of furosemide is appropriate when a client with heart failure has an elevated BNP level. BNP elevation indicates fluid overload, and furosemide is a diuretic that helps in reducing excess fluid. Measuring the client's oxygen saturation (Choice A) is not directly related to addressing fluid overload. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice B) is not indicated for managing elevated BNP levels. Holding the furosemide dose (Choice D) would delay appropriate treatment for fluid overload.

2. The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. Which outcome is the priority for this child?

• A. Activity tolerance as evidenced by appropriate age-level activities being performed
• B. Absence of skin breakdown as evidenced by intact skin and absence of redness
• C. Maintaining adequate nutritional status as evidenced by stable weight without gain or loss
• D. Maintaining fluid balance as evidenced by a urine output of 1 to 2 ml/kg/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acute glomerulonephritis, maintaining fluid balance is the priority to prevent complications like fluid overload or dehydration. Monitoring urine output within the range of 1 to 2 ml/kg/hr is crucial in assessing renal function. While activity tolerance, skin integrity, and nutritional status are important aspects of care, fluid balance takes precedence due to its direct impact on the renal condition and overall health outcome for the child.

3. A client with a history of seizures is being discharged with a prescription for phenytoin (Dilantin). Which instruction should the nurse provide this client?

• A. Take the medication with meals
• B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication
• C. Limit sodium intake
• D. Take the medication at bedtime

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction is to advise the client to avoid alcohol while taking phenytoin. Alcohol can interact with phenytoin, making it less effective and leading to increased side effects. Taking the medication with meals (Choice A) may help reduce gastrointestinal upset but is not the most crucial instruction for this medication. Limiting sodium intake (Choice C) is not directly related to phenytoin therapy. Taking the medication at bedtime (Choice D) is not a standard instruction for phenytoin administration.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Maintain the client on bed rest
• B. Apply warm, moist compresses to the legs
• C. Encourage early ambulation
• D. Massage the legs daily

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to encourage early ambulation. Early ambulation helps prevent DVT by promoting circulation, reducing stasis, and preventing blood clot formation. Maintaining the client on bed rest (Choice A) would increase the risk of DVT due to decreased mobility. Applying warm, moist compresses to the legs (Choice B) can be beneficial for other conditions but does not directly prevent DVT. Massaging the legs daily (Choice D) can dislodge a blood clot, leading to serious complications in a client at risk for DVT.

5. What instruction is most important for the nurse to provide a female client who has just been diagnosed with trichomoniasis?

• A. Avoid douching
• B. Treat sexual partner(s) concurrently
• C. Avoid using moist washcloths when bathing
• D. Postpone becoming pregnant until the infection is treated

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction for a female client diagnosed with trichomoniasis is to treat sexual partner(s) concurrently. This is crucial to prevent reinfection and the spread of the infection. Choice A, avoiding douching, is generally recommended for vaginal health but is not the most critical instruction in this case. Choice C, avoiding moist washcloths when bathing, is not directly related to the transmission or treatment of trichomoniasis. Choice D, postponing pregnancy until the infection is treated, is important but treating sexual partners concurrently takes precedence to prevent reinfection.

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