Nursing Elites

1. In preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure, the nurse notes that the client's B-Type Naturetic peptide (BNP) is elevated. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Measure the client's oxygen saturation before taking further action
• B. Administer a PRN dose of nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)
• C. Administer the dose of furosemide as scheduled
• D. Hold the dose of furosemide until contacting the healthcare provider

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose of furosemide is appropriate when a client with heart failure has an elevated BNP level. BNP elevation indicates fluid overload, and furosemide is a diuretic that helps in reducing excess fluid. Measuring the client's oxygen saturation (Choice A) is not directly related to addressing fluid overload. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice B) is not indicated for managing elevated BNP levels. Holding the furosemide dose (Choice D) would delay appropriate treatment for fluid overload.

2. A 9-year-old received a short arm cast for a right radius. To relieve itching under the child's cast, which instructions should the nurse provide to the parents?

• A. Blow cool air from a hair dryer under the cast
• B. Twist the cast back and forth
• C. Shake powder into the cast
• D. Push a pencil under the cast edge

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Blow cool air from a hairdryer under the cast.' Blowing cool air can help relieve itching without damaging the cast or causing injury. Choice B, twisting the cast back and forth, can lead to discomfort, skin irritation, or even injury. Choice C, shaking powder into the cast, can create a mess, increase the risk of skin issues, and interfere with proper healing. Choice D, pushing a pencil under the cast edge, is dangerous as it can cause injury to the child's skin or the underlying tissues. Therefore, the safest and most effective option to relieve itching under the cast is to blow cool air from a hair dryer.

3. An angry client screams at the emergency department triage nurse, 'I've been waiting here for two hours! You and the staff are incompetent.' What is the best response for the nurse to make?

• A. The emergency department is very busy at this time.
• B. I'll let you see the doctor next because you've waited so long.
• C. I'm doing the best I can for the sickest clients first.
• D. I understand you are frustrated with the wait time.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response for the nurse is to choose option D, 'I understand you are frustrated with the wait time.' This response acknowledges the client's emotions, shows empathy, and validates their feelings of frustration. Option A justifies the situation but does not address the client's emotional state. Option B is unfair to other patients and may not be based on urgency. Option C focuses on the nurse's actions rather than addressing the client's emotions, making it less effective than option D.

4. A client diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) is placed on drug therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). The client should be instructed to report which effect(s) of the medication to the healthcare provider?

• A. Reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids
• B. Bloody or blood-tinged urine
• C. Blurring of vision
• D. Weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a week

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Rifampin (Rifadin) commonly causes a reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine, sweat, saliva, and tears. This is a harmless side effect but should be reported to the healthcare provider for monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with rifampin therapy. Bloody or blood-tinged urine may indicate other issues such as urinary tract infection or kidney problems, blurring of vision may suggest eye problems, and significant weight gain could be related to various health conditions unrelated to rifampin.

5. An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
• B. Turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion
• C. Notify the anesthesiologist that the epidural infusion needs to be disconnected
• D. Apply an internal fetal monitoring device and continue to monitor carefully

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the presence of late decelerations during contractions indicates fetal compromise. To address this, the nurse's initial action should be to turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. Oxytocin can contribute to uteroplacental insufficiency, leading to late decelerations. This intervention aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth is not the first-line action unless other interventions fail. Notifying the anesthesiologist about disconnecting the epidural infusion is not the priority in this situation. Applying an internal fetal monitoring device is invasive and not the immediate step needed when late decelerations are present.

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