HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. In planning care for a client with a surgical wound healing by secondary intention, the nurse can anticipate that the client will:
- A. Be at an increased susceptibility for infection
- B. Have a wound that heals more slowly
- C. Experience more pain during the healing process
- D. Require more frequent dressing changes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Wounds healing by secondary intention involve the gradual filling of the wound with granulation tissue, leading to a higher risk of infection due to prolonged exposure. This makes choice A the correct answer. Choices B and C are incorrect because wounds healing by secondary intention take longer to heal and often result in more pain compared to wounds healing by primary intention. Choice D is also incorrect as wounds healing by secondary intention usually require more frequent dressing changes to prevent infection and promote healing.
2. A client has right-sided paralysis following a cerebrovascular accident. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate to prevent a plantar flexion contracture of the affected extremity?
- A. Ankle-foot orthotic
- B. Continuous passive motion machine
- C. Abduction splint
- D. Sequential compression device
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An ankle-foot orthotic is the correct choice to prevent a plantar flexion contracture in a paralyzed limb. An ankle-foot orthotic helps maintain proper alignment of the foot and ankle, preventing the foot from being permanently fixed in a pointed-down position. Continuous passive motion machines are typically used to promote joint movement after surgery and would not address the prevention of contractures in this case. Abduction splints are used to keep the legs apart and would not address the specific issue described. Sequential compression devices are used to prevent deep vein thrombosis by promoting circulation in the lower extremities and are not indicated for preventing plantar flexion contractures.
3. A client who has had an allogeneic stem cell transplant needs protective measures. What precaution should the nurse plan for this client?
- A. Ensure the client wears a mask when outside the room if there is construction nearby.
- B. Place the client in a private room with positive pressure airflow.
- C. Restrict all visitors from seeing the client.
- D. Provide a HEPA filter in the client's room.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For a client who has undergone an allogeneic stem cell transplant, it is crucial to minimize exposure to potential sources of infection. Wearing a mask when outside the room, especially in areas with construction or other potential risks, helps protect the client's compromised immune system. Positive pressure airflow rooms are typically used for clients with airborne infections, not for those post-stem cell transplant. Restricting all visitors may contribute to the client's well-being, but it is not a direct protective measure against infection. While HEPA filters can be beneficial in maintaining air quality, wearing a mask when exposed to external risks is a more targeted and immediate protective measure in this scenario.
4. During an assessment, a healthcare professional is evaluating a client who has been on bed rest for the past month. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the client has developed thrombophlebitis?
- A. bladder distention
- B. decreased blood pressure
- C. calf swelling
- D. diminished bowel sounds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Calf swelling, redness, and tenderness are classic signs of thrombophlebitis. The swelling occurs due to the formation of a blood clot in the deep veins of the calf, leading to inflammation and potential obstruction of blood flow. Bladder distention (Choice A) is more indicative of urinary retention, decreased blood pressure (Choice B) can be seen in conditions like shock, and diminished bowel sounds (Choice D) may suggest gastrointestinal issues, none of which are directly related to thrombophlebitis.
5. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). What side effect should the healthcare provider report immediately?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Gingival hyperplasia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a significant side effect associated with phenytoin therapy. It is characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to issues such as difficulty in speaking, eating, and maintaining proper oral hygiene. This condition can progress rapidly and may require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Increased appetite, dry mouth, and nausea/vomiting are common side effects of various medications, but they are not as urgent or serious as gingival hyperplasia in a client taking phenytoin.
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