HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. A nurse at a clinic is collecting data about pain from a client who reports severe abdominal pain. The nurse asks the client if there have been any accompanying nausea and vomiting. Which of the following pain characteristics is the nurse attempting to determine?
- A. Presence of associated manifestations.
- B. Location of the pain
- C. Pain quality
- D. Aggravating and relieving factors
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse is identifying associated manifestations like nausea and vomiting that may occur with the pain. The presence of associated manifestations helps in understanding the broader clinical picture and potential causes of the pain. Location refers to where the pain is felt, pain quality describes the nature of the pain, and aggravating and relieving factors relate to what makes the pain worse or better. In this scenario, the focus is on identifying additional symptoms that can provide important diagnostic clues.
2. After corrective surgery for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) is completed, and the infant is returned to the pediatric unit with an IV infusion in place, what is the priority nursing action?
- A. Apply adequate restraints.
- B. Administer a mild sedative.
- C. Assess the IV site for infiltration.
- D. Attach the nasogastric tube to wall suction.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority nursing action after corrective surgery for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) is to assess the IV site for infiltration. This is crucial as it ensures proper fluid administration and prevents complications such as phlebitis or infiltration-related tissue damage. Applying restraints (Choice A) would not be appropriate in this situation as it is not related to the immediate post-operative care of an infant with an IV infusion. Administering a mild sedative (Choice B) is not indicated as the primary concern post-surgery is monitoring the IV site and the infant's response to the surgery. Attaching the nasogastric tube to wall suction (Choice D) is not the priority at this time, as assessing the IV site takes precedence to prevent potential complications.
3. A clinical instructor teaches a class for the public about diabetes mellitus. Which individual does the nurse assess as being at highest risk for developing diabetes?
- A. The 50-year-old client who does not engage in any physical exercise
- B. The 56-year-old client who drinks three glasses of wine daily
- C. The 42-year-old client who is 50 pounds overweight
- D. The 38-year-old client who smokes one pack of cigarettes daily
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The 42-year-old client who is 50 pounds overweight is at the highest risk for developing diabetes. Excess weight is a significant risk factor for diabetes as it can lead to insulin resistance and metabolic abnormalities. Choices A, B, and D are also risk factors for diabetes, but being overweight has a stronger association with the development of the condition compared to lack of exercise, excessive alcohol consumption, or smoking.
4. While conducting a mental status examination of a newly admitted male client, the PN notes that his head is lowered, and he shows no emotion or expression when speaking. Based on these observations, what documentation should the PN include?
- A. Impaired verbalization
- B. Depressed mood
- C. Flat affect
- D. Diminished LOC
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Flat affect.' Flat affect refers to a lack of emotional expression, which the PN observed in the client. This observation is significant as it can provide valuable information for the client's mental health assessment and subsequent care planning. Choice A, 'Impaired verbalization,' does not capture the lack of emotional expression seen in the client. Choice B, 'Depressed mood,' may not accurately reflect the observed behavior of the client. Choice D, 'Diminished LOC,' pertains to the level of consciousness, which was not indicated as being a concern in the scenario provided.
5. The nurse has received a report regarding a client in labor. The woman’s last vaginal examination was recorded as 3 cm, 30%, and –2. What is the nurse’s interpretation of this assessment?
- A. Cervix is effaced 3 cm and dilated 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
- B. Cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
- C. Cervix is effaced 3 cm and dilated 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines.
- D. Cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct interpretation of the assessment provided is that the cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines. In the given assessment, the measurements are ordered as dilation, effacement, and station. Choice A is incorrect as it wrongly places the presenting part below the ischial spines. Choice C is incorrect because it places the presenting part below the ischial spines. Choice D is also incorrect as it incorrectly states that the presenting part is below the ischial spines, even though it correctly mentions the dilation and effacement of the cervix.