Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the medication with the needle at a 45-degree angle.
• B. Administer the medication with the needle at a 90-degree angle.
• C. Inject the medication into the muscle.
• D. Pinch the skin before injecting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Enoxaparin is a medication that is administered subcutaneously, which means it should be injected into the fatty tissue layer beneath the skin. Administering enoxaparin at a 90-degree angle ensures proper absorption and reduces the risk of injecting the medication into muscle tissue, which could affect its effectiveness. Injecting the medication at a 45-degree angle may lead to improper absorption as it may not reach the subcutaneous tissue adequately. Injecting the medication into the muscle instead of subcutaneously can alter the absorption rate and therapeutic effects. Pinching the skin before injecting is not necessary for administering enoxaparin subcutaneously and may cause unnecessary discomfort to the client.

2. The LPN/LVN observes that a male client has removed the covering from an ice pack applied to his knee. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Observe the appearance of the skin under the ice pack.
• B. Instruct the client regarding the importance of the covering.
• C. Reapply the covering after filling it with fresh ice.
• D. Ask the client how long the ice pack was applied to the skin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when a client removes the covering from an ice pack is to observe the appearance of the skin under the ice pack. This assessment is crucial to check for any skin damage or adverse reactions resulting from direct contact with the ice pack. Instructing the client about the importance of the covering (Choice B) can follow the skin assessment. Reapplying the covering (Choice C) before skin assessment may potentially cause harm. Asking the client about the duration of ice application (Choice D) is not the immediate priority; ensuring skin integrity is the primary concern.

3. A client with prostate cancer declines to discuss concerns after the provider discusses treatment options. What statement should the nurse make?

• A. I am available to talk if you should change your mind.
• B. It’s important to discuss your concerns with the provider.
• C. You need to make a decision about your treatment options.
• D. Your concerns will be addressed at a later time.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering to talk later if the client changes their mind respects their current choice and keeps the dialogue open. Choice B is not the best response as it may pressure the client to share concerns. Choice C is incorrect as it imposes a decision on the client. Choice D does not acknowledge the client's feelings in the moment and postpones addressing concerns.

4. While caring for a client who begins to experience a generalized seizure while standing in her room, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Place a pad under the client’s head
• B. Hold the client’s limbs tightly to prevent injury
• C. Lift the client into bed with the help of other staff members
• D. Insert a bite block into the client’s mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a seizure, the priority is to protect the client's head and ensure their safety. The nurse should guide the client to the ground if possible and place a soft pad or a folded cloth under the head to prevent injury. Restraining the client's limbs can result in injury and should be avoided. Lifting the client can also lead to injuries during a seizure. Inserting a bite block is contraindicated as it can cause damage to the teeth, oral tissues, and obstruct the airway. Therefore, the correct action is to place a pad under the client's head to protect them during the seizure.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is responding to treatment?

• A. Dry mucous membranes
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Decreased heart rate
• D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased urine output is the correct assessment finding that indicates the client is responding to treatment for dehydration. When a client is dehydrated, their urine output tends to decrease as the body tries to conserve fluids. Therefore, an increase in urine output suggests that the client's hydration status is improving. Dry mucous membranes (Choice A) are a sign of dehydration and would not indicate a positive response to treatment. Decreased heart rate (Choice C) and elevated blood pressure (Choice D) are not specific indicators of hydration status in a client with dehydration.

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