Nursing Elites

1. In order to be effective as an occupational health nurse, you should be equipped with knowledge and skills in which of the following:

• A. public health science
• B. research process
• C. interviewing and counseling
• D. oral and written communication

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To be effective as an occupational health nurse, having knowledge and skills in public health science, the research process, interviewing and counseling, and oral and written communication are all important. However, communication skills, both oral and written, are crucial for conveying information, educating employees, documenting findings, and collaborating with other healthcare professionals. While public health science, research process, interviewing, and counseling are essential, oral and written communication is fundamental for effective communication and coordination in the workplace, making it the most critical skill for an occupational health nurse.

2. The nurse is caring for a 75-year-old client in congestive heart failure. Which finding suggests that digitalis levels should be reviewed?

• A. Extreme fatigue
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Intense itching
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Extreme fatigue can be a sign of digitalis toxicity, especially in older adults, and warrants a review of the client's medication levels and potential adjustment. Increased appetite, intense itching, and constipation are not typically associated with digitalis toxicity and do not directly indicate a need for a review of digitalis levels.

3. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyperglycemia. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) contains a high glucose content, which can lead to elevated blood sugar levels, resulting in hyperglycemia. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is crucial in clients receiving TPN to prevent complications such as osmotic diuresis, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because TPN is more likely to cause hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia, hyperkalemia, or hyponatremia.

4. The nurse is caring for an acutely ill 10-year-old client. Which of the following assessments would require the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. Rapid bounding pulse
• B. Temperature of 38.5 degrees Celsius
• C. Profuse diaphoresis
• D. Slow, irregular respirations

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, slow, irregular respirations. In an acutely ill child, this assessment can indicate impending respiratory failure or neurological compromise, necessitating immediate intervention. Rapid bounding pulse (choice A) may indicate tachycardia but is not as immediately concerning as compromised respirations. A temperature of 38.5 degrees Celsius (choice B) is elevated but may not be the most urgent concern unless accompanied by other symptoms. Profuse diaphoresis (choice C) can indicate increased sympathetic activity but is not as critical as respiratory compromise.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with status epilepticus. The most important nursing assessment of this client is

• A. Intravenous fluid infusion
• B. Level of consciousness
• C. Pulse and respirations
• D. Extremities for injuries

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In status epilepticus, the most crucial nursing assessment is the level of consciousness. Assessing the client's level of consciousness is vital as prolonged seizures can result in hypoxia, brain damage, and require immediate intervention. Pulse and respirations (choice C) are important assessments, but in status epilepticus, the priority is to monitor the client's neurological status. Checking intravenous fluid infusion (choice A) and extremities for injuries (choice D) are not the primary assessments needed in managing a client experiencing status epilepticus.

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