HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. The caregiver is assessing an 8-month-old child with atonic cerebral palsy. Which statement from the caregiver supports the presence of this problem?
- A. When I place my finger in the left hand, the baby does not respond with a grasp.
- B. My baby does not seem to track objects when I move toys in front of their face.
- C. When it thundered loudly last night, the baby did not even startle.
- D. When I place the baby in a supine position, that's how I find the baby.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The statement 'When I place the baby in a supine position, that's how I find the baby' supports the presence of atonic cerebral palsy. In this type of cerebral palsy, the child may have poor muscle tone, making it difficult for them to roll from a back-lying position. This inability to roll indicates a lack of muscle tone, which is a characteristic feature of atonic cerebral palsy. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to the muscle tone issues typical of atonic cerebral palsy. Choice A focuses on a lack of grasp response, which may suggest motor issues but not specifically atonic cerebral palsy. Choice B refers to visual tracking, and choice C is about the startle reflex, neither of which are defining characteristics of atonic cerebral palsy.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer metoprolol 200 mg PO daily. The medication available is metoprolol 100 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)
- A. 1 tablet
- B. 2 tablets
- C. 0.5 tablet
- D. 4 tablets
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To administer 200 mg of metoprolol using 100 mg tablets, the healthcare professional should give 2 tablets. Each tablet contains 100 mg of metoprolol, so 2 tablets will provide the required 200 mg dose. Choice A is incorrect because 1 tablet would only provide 100 mg, which is insufficient. Choice C is incorrect as fractions of tablets are usually not used in practice to ensure accurate dosing. Choice D is incorrect as it would result in an overdose, providing 400 mg instead of the prescribed 200 mg.
3. A nurse is planning strategies to manage time effectively for client care. What should the nurse implement?
- A. Use the planning step of the nursing process to prioritize client care delivery.
- B. Delegate all tasks to assistive personnel.
- C. Focus on completing tasks in the order they are assigned.
- D. Avoid using a checklist for daily tasks.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using the planning step of the nursing process to prioritize client care delivery is crucial for effective time management. By prioritizing tasks based on client needs and acuity levels, the nurse can ensure that the most critical care is provided in a timely manner. Choice B is incorrect because while delegation is important, not all tasks can be delegated, and the nurse is ultimately responsible for the care provided. Choice C is incorrect as completing tasks in the order they are assigned may not align with the urgency of client needs. Choice D is incorrect as using a checklist can help the nurse stay organized and ensure that all necessary tasks are completed.
4. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is being assessed. Which symptom would be most concerning?
- A. Headache
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Dizziness
- D. Chest pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chest pain in a client with hypertension is the most concerning symptom as it may indicate a myocardial infarction or other serious cardiac event related to hypertension. Immediate intervention is required to address potential life-threatening conditions. Headache, blurred vision, and dizziness are common symptoms associated with hypertension but are not typically indicative of an acute cardiac event requiring urgent attention.
5. The client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely to assess for complications?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Blood glucose
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Serum calcium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blood glucose. When caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels is essential due to the risk of hyperglycemia. TPN solutions are high in glucose, and clients may be at risk of developing hyperglycemia if the infusion rate is too high or if there are underlying issues such as insulin resistance. Monitoring serum potassium (choice A) is important but not the most crucial value to monitor in clients receiving TPN. Serum sodium (choice C) and serum calcium (choice D) are not directly impacted by TPN administration and are less likely to be affected compared to blood glucose levels.
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