a client with a history of hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide hctz which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 1 Exam 1

1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ). Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B. Hyponatremia.' Hydrochlorothiazide can lead to electrolyte imbalances, such as hyponatremia, due to its diuretic effect. This potential adverse effect should be closely monitored in patients taking HCTZ. Choice A, hyperkalemia, is less likely to occur with HCTZ as it tends to cause hypokalemia. Choice C, bradycardia, is not a common adverse effect of HCTZ. Choice D, hyperglycemia, is also less commonly associated with HCTZ use compared to hyponatremia.

2. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being discharged with a prescription for epoetin alfa (Epogen). What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor your blood pressure regularly.' Epoetin alfa (Epogen) can lead to hypertension as a side effect, so it is essential for clients with CKD to monitor their blood pressure regularly. Choice A is incorrect because epoetin alfa does not need to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because the client should not expect immediate improvement upon starting the medication. Choice D is incorrect because while monitoring potassium intake is important in CKD, the question specifically pertains to epoetin alfa and its side effects, not potassium intake.

3. What intervention should the nurse implement for a client experiencing an anxiety attack?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering prescribed anxiolytic medication is the most appropriate intervention for a client experiencing an anxiety attack. Anxiolytic medications can provide rapid relief from severe anxiety symptoms. Teaching deep breathing exercises (choice A) can be helpful for managing mild anxiety but may not be sufficient during an acute anxiety attack. Providing a quiet environment (choice B) is beneficial to reduce stimuli, but it may not address the immediate distress of an ongoing anxiety attack. Engaging the client in conversation (choice D) is generally not recommended during an anxiety attack as it can potentially exacerbate the symptoms by increasing stimulation.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To increase red blood cell production.' Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells to treat anemia associated with CKD. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin therapy is primarily used to address anemia by increasing the production of red blood cells rather than lowering blood pressure, improving appetite, or reducing fluid retention.

5. A client is receiving a blood transfusion and reports chills and back pain. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client receiving a blood transfusion reports chills and back pain, it indicates a possible transfusion reaction. The nurse's priority action is to stop the transfusion immediately. Continuing the transfusion at a slower rate (Choice A) can exacerbate the reaction. Administering an antipyretic (Choice B) may help with fever but does not address the underlying issue of a transfusion reaction. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important but should not delay the immediate action of stopping the transfusion to ensure the client's safety.

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