Nursing Elites

1. During the shift change report at an acute care hospital, the charge nurse assigns the Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN) to care for a client. Which task is within the LPN's scope?

• A. Administering IV medication
• B. Conducting initial client assessments
• C. Providing wound care for a stage III pressure ulcer
• D. Teaching a diabetic client about insulin administration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. LPNs are trained to provide basic nursing care such as wound care. Providing wound care for a stage III pressure ulcer falls within the LPN's scope of practice. Administering IV medication (choice A) requires a higher level of skill and is usually the responsibility of registered nurses. Conducting initial client assessments (choice B) demands more advanced training and is typically performed by registered nurses. Teaching a diabetic client about insulin administration (choice D) involves patient education and is usually within the scope of registered nurses or other healthcare professionals with specific training in diabetic care.

2. After morning dressing changes, a male client with paraplegia contaminates his ischial decubiti dressing with diarrheal stool. What is the best activity for the nurse to assign to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

• A. Identify the need for additional supplies for an extra dressing change
• B. Provide perianal care and collect clean linens for the dressing change
• C. Document the diarrhea that necessitates an additional dressing change
• D. Position the client for access to the decubiti sites and remove dressings

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best activity for the nurse to assign to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) in this situation is to provide perianal care and collect clean linens for the dressing change. This task is crucial to maintain proper hygiene, prevent infection, and promote healing in the areas affected by decubiti. Choice A is not the priority as addressing the contamination and ensuring hygiene is more critical. Choice C is not the immediate concern and does not address the current situation. Choice D involves direct client care tasks that should be handled by licensed nursing staff.

3. A client is scheduled for a sigmoidoscopy and expresses anxiety about the procedure. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Offer information about the procedure steps
• B. Administer an anxiolytic before the procedure
• C. Encourage the client to discuss their fears
• D. Reassure the client that the procedure is common and safe

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse when a client expresses anxiety about a procedure is to encourage the client to discuss their fears. By allowing the client to express their concerns, the nurse can provide personalized support, address specific worries, and offer tailored information. This approach helps to establish trust, reduce anxiety, and promote a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Offering information about the procedure steps (Choice A) may be helpful but should come after addressing the client's fears. Administering an anxiolytic (Choice B) should not be the first action as it focuses on symptom management rather than addressing the underlying cause of anxiety. Reassuring the client that the procedure is common and safe (Choice D) is important but should follow active listening and addressing the client's fears.

4. Based on the documentation in the medical record, which action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Administer the rubella vaccine subcutaneously
• B. Observe the mother breastfeeding her infant
• C. Call the nursery for the infant's blood type result
• D. Administer Vicodin one tablet for pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to observe the mother breastfeeding her infant. This action is essential to ensure that the infant is feeding well and to assess maternal-infant bonding. Administering the rubella vaccine subcutaneously (Option A) is not the immediate priority in this scenario as assessing breastfeeding is more crucial. Calling the nursery for the infant's blood type result (Option C) is premature and not the next appropriate step, as it does not address the immediate needs of the newborn. Administering Vicodin one tablet for pain (Option D) is not indicated without further assessment or indication of pain, making it an incorrect choice at this time.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic liver disease. Which lab value is most concerning?

• A. Elevated AST and ALT levels
• B. Decreased albumin level
• C. Elevated bilirubin level
• D. Prolonged PT/INR

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with chronic liver disease, a prolonged PT/INR is the most concerning lab value. This finding indicates impaired liver function affecting the synthesis of clotting factors, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Elevated AST and ALT levels (Choice A) indicate liver cell damage but do not directly correlate with the risk of bleeding. A decreased albumin level (Choice B) is common in liver disease but is not the most concerning in terms of bleeding risk. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice C) are seen in liver disease but do not directly reflect the risk of bleeding as PT/INR values do.

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