during which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity
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Leadership and Management HESI Quizlet

1. During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur. Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage. Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.

2. Your long-term care patient has chronic pain and at this point in time, the patient needs increasing dosages to adequately control this pain. What is this patient most likely affected by?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Drug tolerance. When a patient needs increasing dosages to achieve the same pain relief, it indicates the development of drug tolerance. This means the body has adapted to the drug, requiring higher doses to produce the same effect. Choice A, drug addiction, is incorrect because drug addiction involves a psychological and physical dependence on the drug, which is not described in the scenario. Choice B, drug interactions, is incorrect as it refers to the effects when multiple drugs interact with each other, not the situation described. Choice C, drug side effects, is also incorrect as it pertains to the unintended effects of a drug, not the need for higher doses to control pain.

3. Which atrioventricular heart block is also referred to as Mobitz II?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Second-degree atrioventricular heart block is also known as Mobitz II. In Mobitz II, some atrial impulses are blocked from reaching the ventricles, resulting in occasional dropped beats. Third-degree atrioventricular heart block is known as complete heart block, where no atrial impulses reach the ventricles. First-degree atrioventricular heart block is a condition where there is delayed conduction between the atria and ventricles but all atrial impulses are eventually conducted to the ventricles.

4. A nurse reviews a client's laboratory report and notes that the client's serum phosphorus level is 2.0 mg/dL. Which condition most likely caused this serum phosphorus level?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcoholism. Alcoholism can lead to hypophosphatemia due to poor dietary intake and other factors. Excessive alcohol consumption can result in malnutrition, particularly a deficiency in phosphorus. Choices B, C, and D are unlikely to cause low serum phosphorus levels. Renal insufficiency is more likely to cause hyperphosphatemia, hypoparathyroidism is associated with hypocalcemia rather than hypophosphatemia, and tumor lysis syndrome typically presents with hyperphosphatemia due to the release of intracellular phosphate.

5. A patient's serum potassium level is 2.2 mEq/L. Which nursing action is the highest priority for this patient?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to initiate cardiac monitoring. Severe hypokalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, making cardiac monitoring the priority to detect and manage any cardiac complications. Starting oxygen, seizure precautions, or bed rest are not the immediate priority actions for severe hypokalemia.

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