Nursing Elites

1. During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage VI

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur. Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage. Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.

2. Which preventive measure can be employed to decrease the risk of compartment syndrome?

• A. The administration of a potassium-sparing diuretic for heart failure
• B. A bivalve cast for a skeletal fracture
• C. A cerebral diuretic to decrease intracranial pressure after a head injury
• D. A chest tube to restore normal intrathoracic pressure after a pneumothorax

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A bivalve cast can help decrease the risk of compartment syndrome by providing space for swelling, thus preventing the build-up of pressure within the muscles. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to preventing compartment syndrome. Choice A is more focused on managing heart failure, choice C on reducing intracranial pressure, and choice D on restoring intrathoracic pressure after a pneumothorax, which are not relevant to preventing compartment syndrome.

3. A nurse is preparing to complete an incident report regarding a medication error. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Make a copy of the incident report for personal records
• B. Identify the medication name and dosage administered to the client in the report
• C. Obtain an order from the client's provider to complete the report
• D. Include the time the medication error occurred in the report

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to identify the medication name and dosage administered to the client in the incident report. This information is crucial for accurate documentation and investigation of the medication error. Choice A is incorrect because incident reports are usually kept confidential and not for personal keeping. Choice C is incorrect as obtaining an order from the client's provider is not necessary to complete an incident report. Choice D, while important, is not the only essential information needed for the incident report.

4. You are caring for a neonate who has a cleft palate. You should inform the mother that surgical correction will be done when the infant is:

• A. 8 to 12 months of age.
• B. 20 to 24 months of age.
• C. 16 to 20 months of age.
• D. 12 to 16 months of age.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 8 to 12 months of age. Surgical correction for a cleft palate is typically performed around this age to optimize speech development and prevent feeding difficulties. Options B, C, and D suggest later ages for surgery, which may lead to speech and feeding issues due to the delay in correction.

5. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for further evaluation and possible intervention?

• A. A client who is at 28 weeks gestation and has a negative Coombs titer
• B. A client who is 39 weeks of gestation and has a negative contraction stress test
• C. A client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has a biophysical profile of 6
• D. A client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has an L/S ratio of 2:1

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A biophysical profile of 6 at 35 weeks of gestation indicates a need for further evaluation and possible intervention. A negative Coombs titer at 28 weeks gestation (Choice A) is within normal limits. A negative contraction stress test at 39 weeks gestation (Choice B) is expected as the pregnancy nears term. An L/S ratio of 2:1 at 37 weeks of gestation (Choice D) is consistent with fetal lung maturity.

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