Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is comparing the rate of medication errors on the medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Which of the following quality improvement methods is the nurse using?

• A. Structure audit
• B. Benchmarking
• C. Risk benefit analysis
• D. Root cause analysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Benchmarking. Benchmarking involves comparing performance metrics with those from other units or institutions, which is exactly what the nurse is doing by comparing the rate of medication errors on their medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Choice A, Structure audit, is not relevant to this scenario as it focuses on assessing the physical, organizational, or procedural structures in a healthcare setting. Choice C, Risk benefit analysis, involves weighing the potential risks and benefits of a particular course of action, not comparing performance metrics. Choice D, Root cause analysis, is a method used to identify the underlying causes of problems or adverse events, not to compare performance metrics between units.

2. What is the primary focus of primary healthcare?

• A. Emergency care
• B. Preventive care
• C. Specialized treatment
• D. Hospital-based services

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Preventive care. Primary healthcare emphasizes preventive care, which includes promoting overall health, preventing diseases, and providing early intervention to avoid the progression of illnesses. Emergency care (choice A) is focused on immediate medical attention for urgent health situations but is not the primary focus of primary healthcare. Specialized treatment (choice C) refers to care provided by specialists for specific health conditions, which is not the main focus of primary healthcare. Hospital-based services (choice D) involve inpatient care provided in a hospital setting, which is not the primary focus of primary healthcare that aims to provide comprehensive and accessible care at the community level.

3. A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?

• A. Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath
• B. Shallow respirations and severe abdominal pain
• C. Decreased respirations and increased urine output
• D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations and foul-smelling urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), as the condition progresses, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to Kussmaul's respirations. The accumulation of ketones in the body causes a fruity odor on the breath. Option A is correct because Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath are classic signs of DKA. Option B is incorrect because shallow respirations are not typically seen in DKA, and severe abdominal pain is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis. Option C is incorrect as decreased respirations are not a typical finding in DKA, and increased urine output is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Option D is incorrect because Cheyne-Stokes respirations are not characteristic of DKA, and foul-smelling urine is not a prominent symptom in this condition.

4. Select the stage of viral hepatitis that is accurately paired with its characteristic(s).

• A. The prodromal stage: Jaundice begins
• B. The icteric stage: Flu-like symptoms occur
• C. The pre-icteric stage: Elevated urine bilirubin levels
• D. The post-icteric stage: Jaundice and dark urine occur

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The post-icteric stage of viral hepatitis is accurately described as the stage where jaundice and dark urine occur due to the accumulation of bilirubin. The resolution of jaundice and normalization of urine color are seen in this stage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. In the prodromal stage, symptoms like fatigue and malaise appear before jaundice. The icteric stage is characterized by jaundice, not flu-like symptoms. The pre-icteric stage does not typically involve elevated urine bilirubin levels, as this occurs after the icteric stage.

5. Which statement about adjuvant medications is true and accurate?

• A. Licensed practical nurses can administer adjuvant medications.
• B. Adjuvant medications are schedule 2 narcotics.
• C. Adjuvant medications are schedule 1 narcotics.
• D. Adjuvant medications can be purchased over the counter.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because adjuvant medications are often available over the counter without a prescription. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because licensed practical nurses can administer adjuvant medications depending on their scope of practice. Choices B and C are incorrect because adjuvant medications are not classified as schedule 1 or schedule 2 narcotics.

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