a nurse is assessing a client with a severe headache what should the nurse do first
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health Exam 1

1. A client with a severe headache is being assessed by a nurse. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client presents with a severe headache, the initial action should be to check their blood pressure. This step is crucial as it can help determine if the headache is related to hypertension or other cardiovascular issues. Administering pain relief medication should only be done after assessing the client's vital signs and confirming the cause of the headache. While assessing for associated symptoms like nausea or photophobia is important for a comprehensive evaluation, it should follow checking the blood pressure to address immediate concerns. Offering a quiet environment is indeed beneficial for the client's comfort, but it is not the priority when dealing with a severe headache.

2. The healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client with chronic heart failure. Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate dietary recommendation for a client with chronic heart failure is to follow a low-sodium diet. This helps manage the condition by reducing fluid retention and the workload on the heart. High fluid intake can lead to fluid overload and exacerbate heart failure symptoms. While protein is important for overall health, a high-protein diet is not specifically indicated for chronic heart failure. Increasing sodium intake is contraindicated in heart failure as it can worsen fluid retention and increase the workload on the heart.

3. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.

4. Which nonfood item is the most common cause of respiratory arrest in young children?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Latex balloons. Latex balloons can pose a significant choking hazard to young children if inhaled, potentially leading to respiratory arrest. Broken rattles, buttons, and pacifiers are not typically known to cause respiratory arrest in young children. While these items can present choking hazards as well, the most common cause of respiratory arrest among young children is due to inhaling latex balloons.

5. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyponatremia. Lithium can affect sodium levels in the body, potentially leading to hyponatremia, which is a condition characterized by low sodium levels. This imbalance requires close monitoring as it can lead to symptoms such as confusion, weakness, and even seizures. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because lithium is not primarily associated with causing hypokalemia, hypercalcemia, or hypernatremia. While these imbalances can occur in certain conditions or with other medications, the main electrolyte imbalance to monitor when a client is prescribed lithium is hyponatremia.

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