during the initial morning assessment a male client denies dysuria but reports that his urine appears dark amber which intervention should the lpnlvn
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Test Bank

1. During the initial morning assessment, a male client denies dysuria but reports that his urine appears dark amber. Which intervention should the LPN/LVN implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging additional oral intake of juices and water is the appropriate intervention in this scenario. Dark amber urine can indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or other factors. By encouraging more fluids, the LPN/LVN can help dilute the urine, reducing the concentration of pigments causing the dark color. Providing additional coffee (Choice A) would not necessarily increase hydration and could potentially have a diuretic effect. Exchanging grape juice for cranberry juice (Choice B) does not address the core issue of hydration. Bringing additional fruit (Choice C) may provide some fluid, but encouraging specific fluids like juices and water would be more effective in diluting the urine.

2. A male client presents to the clinic stating that he has a high-stress job and is having difficulty falling asleep at night. The client reports having a constant headache and is seeking medication to help with sleep. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the client's sleep and activity patterns is crucial in understanding the factors contributing to the sleep difficulties and headaches. By evaluating these patterns, the nurse can identify triggers, stressors, and lifestyle habits that may be impacting the client's sleep quality and overall well-being. This assessment will guide the nurse in formulating an appropriate care plan tailored to the client's specific needs. Option B is not appropriate as it focuses solely on providing medication without addressing underlying issues. Option C is premature as a thorough assessment should precede any referrals for specialized studies. Option D, while important, should come after understanding the client's sleep patterns to provide more targeted coping strategies.

3. A client is admitted with infective endocarditis (IE). Which symptom would alert the nurse to a complication of this condition?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A new or changed heart murmur is a common sign of valve involvement in infective endocarditis, indicating a complication such as valve damage or regurgitation. Dyspnea is more commonly associated with respiratory or cardiac conditions not directly related to infective endocarditis. A macular rash is not a typical symptom of infective endocarditis, suggesting other conditions like infectious diseases. Hemorrhage is not a direct complication of infective endocarditis but may occur due to factors such as anticoagulant therapy or underlying bleeding disorders.

4. The nurse is providing care for a client with a wound infection. Which type of precautions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Contact precautions are necessary when caring for a client with a wound infection to prevent the spread of infection. Contact precautions involve practices such as wearing gloves and gowns, and ensuring proper hand hygiene. Airborne precautions are for diseases transmitted by small droplet nuclei that can remain suspended in the air, like tuberculosis. Droplet precautions are for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets larger than 5 microns, such as influenza. Standard precautions are used for all clients to prevent the spread of infection and include practices like hand hygiene, use of personal protective equipment, and safe injection practices. In this case, since the client has a wound infection, the nurse should focus on implementing contact precautions to reduce the risk of spreading the infection to themselves or others.

5. The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

Similar Questions

The provider orders Lanoxin (digoxin) 0.125 mg PO and furosemide 40 mg every day. Which of these foods would the nurse reinforce for the client to eat at least daily?
A client who is terminally ill has a family member who is coping effectively with the situation. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication of effective coping?
Which statement by the nurse indicates culturally responsive care for a client following Islamic practices?
The client is being instructed on how to collect a clean catch urine specimen. Which sequence is appropriate for teaching?
During an admission assessment of an older adult client, a nurse should identify which of the following findings as a potential indication of abuse?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses