HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. A nurse overhears a colleague informing a client that he will administer her medication by injection if she refuses to swallow her pills. The nurse should recognize that the colleague is committing which of the following torts?
- A. Defamation - harming someone's reputation through false statements.
- B. Malpractice - professional negligence or misconduct.
- C. Assault - threatening to cause harm to someone.
- D. Battery - intentional harmful or offensive physical contact.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the colleague's action of informing the client that he will administer medication by injection if she refuses to swallow her pills constitutes assault. Assault is the act of threatening harm that causes fear of imminent harm. It does not involve physical contact but rather the apprehension of an imminent harmful or offensive act. Defamation, choice A, is incorrect as it involves harming someone's reputation through false statements. Malpractice, choice B, is also incorrect as it refers to professional negligence or misconduct in performing duties. Battery, choice D, is not the correct answer as it involves intentional harmful or offensive physical contact with the person.
2. A client with a history of falls is under the care of a nurse. Which of the following actions should be the nurse’s priority?
- A. Complete a fall-risk assessment.
- B. Educate the client and family about fall risks.
- C. Eliminate safety hazards from the client’s environment.
- D. Ensure the client uses assistive aids in their possession.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse's priority should be to eliminate safety hazards from the client's environment as it directly reduces the risk of falls. Addressing environmental hazards is an immediate and crucial step in preventing falls. While completing a fall-risk assessment is important to understand the client's risk factors, educating the client and family about fall risks is essential for prevention, and ensuring the use of assistive aids is crucial for safety, eliminating safety hazards takes precedence as it directly mitigates the risk of falls.
3. A client is recovering from gallbladder surgery performed under general anesthesia. How many times per hour should the nurse encourage the client to use the incentive spirometer?
- A. 4-5 times per hour
- B. 2-3 times per hour
- C. 6-7 times per hour
- D. 8-10 times per hour
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging the client to use the incentive spirometer 4-5 times per hour is the correct approach post-gallbladder surgery under general anesthesia. This frequency helps prevent respiratory complications, such as atelectasis, by promoting lung expansion. Choices B, C, and D suggest either too few or too many sessions per hour, which may not be optimal for the client's respiratory recovery needs. It is important to strike a balance between ensuring adequate lung expansion and not overexerting the client, which is why 4-5 times per hour is the recommended frequency.
4. When reviewing car seat use with the parents of a 1-month-old infant, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Use a car seat that has a three-point harness system.
- B. Position the car seat so that the infant is rear-facing.
- C. Secure the car seat in the front passenger seat of the vehicle.
- D. Convert to a booster seat after 12 months.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for car seat use with a 1-month-old infant is to position the car seat so that the infant is rear-facing. This orientation provides the safest option for infants as it supports their head, neck, and spine. While using a car seat with a three-point harness system is appropriate for infants, placing the car seat in the front passenger seat is not recommended due to the presence of airbags, which can pose a risk to the infant in the event of deployment. Additionally, transitioning to a booster seat is not suitable at 12 months; infants should remain in rear-facing car seats until they outgrow the seat's height or weight limits, typically around 2 years of age.
5. A healthcare provider is providing range of motion to the shoulder and must perform external rotation. Which action will the provider take?
- A. Moves the patient's arm in a full circle.
- B. Moves the patient's arm across the body as far as possible.
- C. Moves the patient's arm behind the body, keeping the elbow straight.
- D. Moves the patient's arm until the thumb is upward and lateral to the head with the elbow flexed.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for external rotation of the shoulder involves moving the patient's arm until the thumb is upward and lateral to the head with the elbow flexed. This position maximizes external rotation at the shoulder joint. Choices A, moving the arm in a full circle, B, moving the arm across the body, and C, moving the arm behind the body with the elbow straight, do not describe external rotation and are incorrect. Therefore, Choice D is the correct action for performing external rotation.
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