Nursing Elites

1. A client who is postoperative is verbalizing pain as a 2 on a pain scale of 0-10. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the preoperative teaching they received about pain management?

• A. "It might help me to listen to music while I'm lying in bed."
• B. "I will use the pain medication as prescribed to manage the pain."
• C. "I will request a different type of pain medication if the pain persists."
• D. "I will ask for a physical therapist to help with the pain."

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Listening to music is a non-pharmacological method to help manage mild pain, reflecting an understanding of pain management strategies. It shows the client's grasp of non-pharmacological pain management techniques taught preoperatively. Choice B, while important, only addresses pharmacological pain management, omitting other strategies discussed in preoperative teaching. Choice C jumps to changing medications without considering non-pharmacological methods first, indicating a narrow approach to pain management. Choice D involves a physical therapist, which is not directly related to the pain management strategies typically discussed in preoperative teaching.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving 24-hour total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line at 54 ml/hr. When initially assessing the client, the nurse notes that the TPN solution has run out and the next TPN solution is not available. What immediate action should the nurse take?

• A. Infuse normal saline at a keep-vein-open rate.
• B. Discontinue the IV and flush the port with heparin.
• C. Infuse 10% dextrose and water at 54 ml/hr.
• D. Obtain a stat blood glucose level and notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infusing 10% dextrose and water at 54 ml/hr is the correct action to prevent hypoglycemia until the next TPN solution becomes available. This solution will help maintain the client's glucose levels. Infusing normal saline at a keep-vein-open rate (Choice A) is not appropriate for maintaining glucose levels and would not address the nutritional needs provided by TPN. Discontinuing the IV and flushing the port with heparin (Choice B) is unnecessary and not indicated in this situation as the client still needs fluid and nutrition. Obtaining a stat blood glucose level and notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done later but is not the immediate action required when the TPN solution has run out.

3. A client has pharyngeal diphtheria. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

• A. Droplet
• B. Contact
• C. Airborne
• D. Protective

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pharyngeal diphtheria is transmitted via droplets, primarily through respiratory secretions. Therefore, droplet precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of the infection. Droplet precautions involve wearing a surgical mask, goggles, and a gown when within three feet of the client. Contact precautions are used for diseases transmitted by direct or indirect contact; airborne precautions are for diseases transmitted through airborne particles; protective precautions are not a standard precaution type.

4. A client with heart failure and a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide is receiving discharge teaching about safety considerations from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. “I will take a hot bath before going to bed.”
• B. “I will take my new medication in the evening.”
• C. “I will leave a light on in my bathroom at night.”
• D. “I will weigh myself once weekly.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Leaving a light on in the bathroom at night is important for an older adult with heart failure who is taking hydrochlorothiazide, a diuretic that can cause nocturia. This safety measure helps prevent falls during nighttime bathroom visits. Option A is incorrect because taking a hot bath before bed can increase the risk of falls due to potential dizziness. Option B does not directly relate to safety considerations but rather the timing of medication administration. Option D, weighing oneself once weekly, is important for monitoring fluid retention but does not address safety concerns related to nocturia and falls.

5. A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of packed RBCs (red blood cells) as rapidly as possible. Which intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to implement?

• A. Obtain the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level.
• B. Prime the tubing and set up the blood pump.
• C. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour.
• D. Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ensuring the accuracy of the blood type match is crucial to prevent transfusion reactions. The LPN/LVN must prioritize this step to avoid adverse outcomes. Obtaining the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level (Option A) is important but not as critical as ensuring blood type compatibility. Priming the tubing and setting up the blood pump (Option B) and monitoring vital signs every 15 minutes (Option C) are essential steps in the transfusion process, but the primary concern should be preventing transfusion reactions by verifying blood type compatibility.

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