HESI LPN
Fundamentals HESI
1. A client who is postoperative is verbalizing pain as a 2 on a pain scale of 0-10. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the preoperative teaching they received about pain management?
- A. "It might help me to listen to music while I'm lying in bed."
- B. "I will use the pain medication as prescribed to manage the pain."
- C. "I will request a different type of pain medication if the pain persists."
- D. "I will ask for a physical therapist to help with the pain."
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Listening to music is a non-pharmacological method to help manage mild pain, reflecting an understanding of pain management strategies. It shows the client's grasp of non-pharmacological pain management techniques taught preoperatively. Choice B, while important, only addresses pharmacological pain management, omitting other strategies discussed in preoperative teaching. Choice C jumps to changing medications without considering non-pharmacological methods first, indicating a narrow approach to pain management. Choice D involves a physical therapist, which is not directly related to the pain management strategies typically discussed in preoperative teaching.
2. A patient is placed in the Sims' position. Which areas will the nurse observe for pressure points?
- A. Chin, elbow, hips
- B. Ileum, clavicle, humerus
- C. Shoulder, anterior iliac spine, ankles
- D. Occipital region of the head, coccyx, heels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a patient is placed in the Sims' position, the nurse should observe pressure points on the ileum, clavicle, humerus, knees, and ankles. Choice A is incorrect as the chin and hips are not typically pressure points in the Sims' position. Choice C is incorrect as the shoulder and anterior iliac spine are not commonly observed pressure points in this position. Choice D is also incorrect as the occipital region of the head, coccyx, and heels are not pressure points commonly associated with the Sims' position.
3. A client who has just had a mastectomy has a closed wound suction device (hemovac) in place. Which nursing action will ensure proper operation of the device?
- A. Collapsing the device whenever it is 1/2 to 2/3 full of air.
- B. Emptying the device every 4 hours.
- C. Replacing the device every 24 hours.
- D. Keeping the device above the level of the surgical site.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Collapsing the device when it is 1/2 to 2/3 full of air is the correct nursing action to ensure proper operation of a closed wound suction device (hemovac). This action maintains negative pressure, which is essential for proper suction and drainage of the wound. Emptying the device every 4 hours (Choice B) is not necessary as the focus should be on collapsing it appropriately. Replacing the device every 24 hours (Choice C) is not a standard practice unless indicated by the healthcare provider. Keeping the device above the level of the surgical site (Choice D) is not necessary for the device's proper operation; collapsing it to maintain negative pressure is the key action.
4. In a disaster at a child day care center, which child would the triage nurse prioritize for treatment last?
- A. An infant with intermittent bulging anterior fontanel between crying episodes
- B. A toddler with severe deep abrasions covering 98% of the body
- C. A preschooler with a lower leg fracture and an upper leg fracture on the other leg
- D. A school-age child with singed eyebrows and hair on the arms
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The toddler with severe deep abrasions covering 98% of the body would be prioritized for treatment last because these extensive injuries may require immediate attention and resources. The other choices present serious conditions but are not as severe or life-threatening as the toddler's injuries. The infant with an intermittent bulging anterior fontanel may have signs of increased intracranial pressure, requiring prompt evaluation. The preschooler's fractures, though serious, can be managed without immediate critical intervention. The school-age child with singed eyebrows and hair may have suffered burns but does not exhibit injuries as severe as the toddler's deep abrasions.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What is the most important action for the LPN/LVN to take?
- A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
- B. Monitor the client's blood glucose level.
- C. Administer insulin as prescribed.
- D. Assess the client's urine output.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's blood glucose level. When a client with diabetes mellitus presents with symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia, it indicates hyperglycemia. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to assess and manage the client's condition effectively. Option A, encouraging the client to increase fluid intake, may exacerbate polyuria. Option C, administering insulin, should be done based on the healthcare provider's prescription after assessing the blood glucose level. Option D, assessing the client's urine output, is important but not the most immediate action needed in this scenario; monitoring blood glucose levels takes precedence.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access