Nursing Elites

1. During the care of a client with Legionnaire's disease, which finding would require the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. Pleuritic pain on inspiration
• B. Dry mucus membranes in the mouth
• C. A decrease in respiratory rate from 34 to 24
• D. Decrease in chest wall expansion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A decrease in chest wall expansion suggests that the client may be experiencing a serious complication, such as worsening pneumonia or respiratory failure, requiring immediate medical attention. This finding indicates a potential decrease in lung function, which could lead to respiratory distress. Pleuritic pain on inspiration may be related to the disease process but does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Dry mucus membranes in the mouth may require attention but are not as critical as a decrease in chest wall expansion. A decrease in respiratory rate could be concerning but is not as urgent as a decrease in chest wall expansion, which directly impacts respiratory function.

2. A client with tuberculosis is receiving isoniazid (INH). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hepatotoxicity
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hepatotoxicity. Isoniazid (INH) can lead to hepatotoxicity, necessitating the monitoring of liver function tests. This adverse effect is characterized by liver damage and dysfunction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because isoniazid is not typically associated with hyperglycemia, hypotension, or hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should focus on assessing for signs and symptoms of hepatotoxicity in a client receiving isoniazid.

3. Tertiary prevention would best be described as:

• A. recovery from physical limitation and psychological regression
• B. health teaching and immunization
• C. rehabilitation of alcoholic and drug dependents
• D. preventing disability and maximum use of remaining capacity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tertiary prevention is the stage of prevention that aims at preventing disability and maximizing the use of remaining capacity. Choice A is more aligned with rehabilitation rather than tertiary prevention. Choice B refers to primary prevention by promoting health and preventing diseases. Choice C focuses on rehabilitation specific to alcohol and drug dependence, which is a form of secondary prevention, not tertiary prevention.

4. The home health care agency can expect to obtain Medicare reimbursement for which home visit performed by a registered nurse (RN) or a practical nurse (PN)?

• A. Assessment of the speech pattern of a mobile adult who had a mild stroke last year.
• B. Safety teaching for an older male client whose wife complains that he uses an unsafe ladder while painting.
• C. Wound care for a client who had a postoperative infection following abdominal surgery two weeks ago.
• D. Evaluation of crutch use by a 65-year-old male client who broke his tibia while snow skiing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because wound care for a postoperative infection is a skilled service that qualifies for Medicare reimbursement. Choices A, B, and D involve assessments, teaching, and evaluation, which may not meet the criteria for Medicare reimbursement as they do not directly involve a skilled nursing service related to a postoperative condition.

5. What is the main objective of the Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI)?

• A. Provide healthcare to all individuals
• B. Reduce child mortality
• C. Eliminate vaccine-preventable diseases
• D. Promote healthy lifestyles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main objective of the Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) is to eliminate vaccine-preventable diseases. While providing healthcare to all individuals and reducing child mortality are important goals, the primary focus of EPI is specifically on preventing diseases through immunization. Promoting healthy lifestyles, although beneficial, is not the primary aim of the EPI.

Similar Questions