Nursing Elites

1. During the care of a client with Legionnaire's disease, which finding would require the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. Pleuritic pain on inspiration
• B. Dry mucus membranes in the mouth
• C. A decrease in respiratory rate from 34 to 24
• D. Decrease in chest wall expansion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A decrease in chest wall expansion suggests that the client may be experiencing a serious complication, such as worsening pneumonia or respiratory failure, requiring immediate medical attention. This finding indicates a potential decrease in lung function, which could lead to respiratory distress. Pleuritic pain on inspiration may be related to the disease process but does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Dry mucus membranes in the mouth may require attention but are not as critical as a decrease in chest wall expansion. A decrease in respiratory rate could be concerning but is not as urgent as a decrease in chest wall expansion, which directly impacts respiratory function.

2. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. White blood cell count (WBC)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. Monitoring the PT helps ensure that the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range to prevent complications such as recurrent DVT or excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, blood urea nitrogen, and white blood cell count are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with a history of DVT.

3. What is the FIRST STEP for thermal protection of a newborn?

• A. Drying the baby thoroughly immediately after birth
• B. Covering the baby with a clean, dry cloth after the cord has been cut
• C. Drying the baby thoroughly after the cord has been cut
• D. Covering the baby with a clean, dry cloth immediately after birth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first step for thermal protection of a newborn is to dry the baby thoroughly immediately after birth. This helps prevent heat loss and is crucial in maintaining the baby's body temperature. Choice B, covering the baby with a clean, dry cloth after the cord has been cut, is not the initial step as drying the baby comes first. Choice C, drying the baby thoroughly after the cord has been cut, is also not the first step. Choice D, covering the baby with a clean, dry cloth immediately after birth, is not as effective as drying the baby to prevent heat loss.

4. The healthcare provider is evaluating the health status of a 16-year-old client with a history of Type 1 diabetes. Which laboratory test would provide the most accurate information about long-term blood glucose control?

• A. Blood glucose level
• B. Glycosylated hemoglobin
• C. Urine ketones
• D. Serum insulin level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c). Glycosylated hemoglobin provides valuable information about blood glucose control over the past 2-3 months. This test measures the average blood sugar levels during this period, offering a more comprehensive view of long-term glycemic control. Choice A, blood glucose level, reflects the blood sugar concentration at the time of testing and may fluctuate throughout the day. Choice C, urine ketones, indicates the presence of ketones and is more relevant for assessing acute complications like diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice D, serum insulin level, evaluates insulin production and is not a direct indicator of long-term blood glucose control in diabetes management.

5. A public health nurse is working with a community to develop a disaster response plan. Which of the following is the priority action?

• A. Identifying available resources and services
• B. Conducting disaster drills
• C. Educating the community about disaster preparedness
• D. Developing a communication plan

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Identifying available resources and services is the priority action when developing a disaster response plan. This step is crucial as it helps the community understand what resources and services are already in place and what additional support may be needed during a disaster. Conducting disaster drills, educating the community about disaster preparedness, and developing a communication plan are important steps in disaster preparedness but come after identifying available resources and services. Without knowing the available resources, it would be challenging to effectively plan and respond to a disaster.

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