Nursing Elites

1. A client was admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia. When auscultating the client's breath sounds, the nurse hears inspiratory crackles in the right base. Temperature is 102.3 degrees Fahrenheit orally. What finding would the nurse expect?

• A. Flushed skin
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Mental confusion
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mental confusion. In this scenario, the client's high fever and pneumonia diagnosis indicate an infection. Infections, especially in older adults, can lead to mental confusion due to the body's systemic response to the infection. Flushed skin (choice A) is more commonly associated with fever but does not specifically relate to the client's condition. Bradycardia (choice B) and hypotension (choice D) are less likely findings in a client with pneumonia and a high fever; instead, tachycardia and increased blood pressure are more commonly seen in response to infection.

2. The nurse is planning care for a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which of the following would be most effective in removing respiratory secretions?

• A. Administration of cough suppressants
• B. Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day
• C. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges
• D. Performing chest physiotherapy twice a day

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day is the most effective in removing respiratory secretions in a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps thin secretions, making them easier to expectorate. Administration of cough suppressants (Choice A) may hinder the removal of secretions by suppressing the cough reflex. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges (Choice C) is important but does not directly address the removal of respiratory secretions. Performing chest physiotherapy (Choice D) is beneficial for mobilizing secretions but may not be as effective as increasing fluid intake in thinning and facilitating the removal of secretions.

3. Which bioterrorism agent poses a high risk for use as a potential biological weapon due to its ability to be readily transmitted through several portals of entry?

• A. Anthrax.
• B. Smallpox.
• C. Botulism.
• D. Tularemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Anthrax. Anthrax is a high-risk bioterrorism agent because it can be readily transmitted through multiple portals of entry such as inhalation, ingestion, or skin contact. This makes it a significant concern for use as a biological weapon. Smallpox, though highly contagious, is not known for multiple portals of entry like Anthrax. Botulism is a potent toxin but is not as easily transmissible through various routes as Anthrax. Tularemia, while a serious bacterial infection, does not have the same ease of transmission through multiple portals of entry as Anthrax.

4. With an alert of an internal disaster and the need for beds, the charge nurse is asked to list clients who are potential discharges within the next hour. Which client should the charge nurse select?

• A. An elderly client who has had type 2 diabetes for over 20 years, admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis 24 hours ago
• B. An adolescent admitted the prior night with Tylenol intoxication
• C. A middle-aged client with an internal automatic defibrillator and complaints of 'passing out at unknown times' admitted yesterday
• D. A school-age child diagnosed with suspected bacterial meningitis and was admitted at the change of shifts

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) that is being well-managed and has shown improvement within 24 hours is more stable and can be considered for discharge sooner than those with more acute or unstable conditions. Choice B is incorrect as Tylenol intoxication may require further monitoring and intervention. Choice C is incorrect as a client with an automatic defibrillator and episodes of passing out needs careful evaluation and monitoring. Choice D is incorrect as suspected bacterial meningitis is a serious condition that typically requires a longer hospital stay for treatment and observation.

5. The multidisciplinary home health care team is discussing a female client diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. The home health care nurse reports the client is getting worse, and her husband is no longer able to care for her in the home. Which action should the home health nurse implement first?

• A. Request a chaplain to counsel the couple.
• B. Assign a home health care aide to provide daily care.
• C. Discuss placing the wife in a nursing home with the husband.
• D. Contact the client's children to discuss the situation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In situations where a client's condition worsens and the caregiver is no longer able to provide sufficient care, the first action to implement is to assign a home health care aide to provide daily care. This ensures that the client's immediate needs are met and that they receive proper care and support. Requesting a chaplain for counseling (Choice A) may be beneficial but is not the most urgent action. Discussing placing the wife in a nursing home (Choice C) should only be considered after assessing the client's needs and exploring all other options. Contacting the client's children (Choice D) can be helpful but does not address the immediate need for daily care that the client requires.

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