Nursing Elites

1. During the admission interview, an older client answers some questions inappropriately. The nurse notes that a hearing aid is in one ear. Which intervention is most helpful in assisting the client to hear the nurse’s question?

• A. Move to the client's other side.
• B. Speak louder into the client's ear with the hearing aid.
• C. Ask the client to adjust the hearing aid volume.
• D. Restate questions articulating consonants carefully.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Restating questions with clear articulation is the most helpful intervention in assisting the client to hear the nurse's question. This approach ensures that the client can better understand the question, especially if there are issues with the hearing aid. Moving to the client's other side or speaking louder into the ear with the hearing aid may not effectively address the problem of clarity in communication. Asking the client to adjust the hearing aid volume assumes that the issue lies solely with the volume, while restating questions with clear articulation can help overcome various hearing difficulties.

2. What pathophysiologic process is producing the symptoms of gout in a client with sudden onset of big toe joint pain and swelling?

• A. Deposition of crystals in the synovial space of the joints produces inflammation and irritation.
• B. Degeneration of joint cartilage causing inflammation.
• C. Infection of the joint space leading to inflammation.
• D. Increased synovial fluid causing joint swelling and pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Gout is characterized by the deposition of uric acid crystals in the synovial fluid of joints, which triggers inflammation and pain. This process is known as crystal-induced arthritis. Choice B is incorrect as gout does not involve degeneration of joint cartilage. Choice C is incorrect as gout is not caused by an infection of the joint space. Choice D is incorrect as gout does not result from increased synovial fluid but rather from the deposition of uric acid crystals.

3. When planning care for a client newly diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma, the nurse identifies a priority nursing problem of visual sensory/perceptual alterations. This problem is based on which etiology?

• A. Limited eye movement.
• B. Decreased peripheral vision.
• C. Blurred distance vision.
• D. Photosensitivity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased peripheral vision. In open-angle glaucoma, decreased peripheral vision is a characteristic symptom resulting from increased intraocular pressure. This visual impairment can lead to sensory/perceptual alterations. Choice A, limited eye movement, is not directly associated with the pathophysiology of open-angle glaucoma. Choice C, blurred distance vision, is more commonly seen in conditions like myopia or presbyopia. Choice D, photosensitivity, is not a typical manifestation of open-angle glaucoma and is more commonly associated with conditions like migraines or certain medications.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?

• A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
• D. Serum potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hemoglobin and hematocrit. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, so monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels is essential to assess its effectiveness. These values reflect the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and can indicate if the treatment is improving anemia related to chronic kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine are indicators of kidney function, while serum potassium levels are monitored due to electrolyte imbalances commonly seen in kidney disease, but they do not directly reflect the effectiveness of epoetin alfa.

5. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?

• A. Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms.
• B. Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.
• C. The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result.
• D. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.

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