Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with a suspected stroke. Which assessment finding is most indicative of a stroke?

• A. Chest pain
• B. Sudden confusion and difficulty speaking
• C. Gradual onset of weakness in the legs
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sudden confusion and difficulty speaking. These are classic signs of a stroke, indicating a neurological deficit that requires urgent medical attention. Choices A, C, and D are less indicative of a stroke. Chest pain is more commonly associated with cardiac issues, gradual onset of weakness in the legs could be related to other conditions like peripheral neuropathy, and nausea/vomiting may suggest gastrointestinal problems rather than a stroke.

2. What pathophysiologic process is producing the symptoms of gout in a client with sudden onset of big toe joint pain and swelling?

• A. Deposition of crystals in the synovial space of the joints produces inflammation and irritation.
• B. Degeneration of joint cartilage causing inflammation.
• C. Infection of the joint space leading to inflammation.
• D. Increased synovial fluid causing joint swelling and pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Gout is characterized by the deposition of uric acid crystals in the synovial fluid of joints, which triggers inflammation and pain. This process is known as crystal-induced arthritis. Choice B is incorrect as gout does not involve degeneration of joint cartilage. Choice C is incorrect as gout is not caused by an infection of the joint space. Choice D is incorrect as gout does not result from increased synovial fluid but rather from the deposition of uric acid crystals.

3. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Gingival hyperplasia
• C. Weight gain
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, which is an overgrowth of gum tissue. This side effect is important to report to the healthcare provider because it can lead to oral health problems. Choice A, drowsiness, is a common side effect of many antiepileptic drugs but is not specific to phenytoin. Choice C, weight gain, is not a typical side effect of phenytoin. Choice D, blurred vision, is not a common side effect of phenytoin; it is more commonly associated with other medications.

4. A client who took a camping vacation two weeks ago in a country with a tropical climate comes to the clinic describing vague symptoms and diarrhea for the past week. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the HCP?

• A. Weakness and fatigue
• B. Intestinal cramping
• C. Weight loss
• D. Jaundiced sclera

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important finding to report to the healthcare provider is a jaundiced sclera. Jaundice suggests liver involvement, which can be a sign of a serious underlying condition. Weakness and fatigue, intestinal cramping, and weight loss are important symptoms, but jaundice indicates a more urgent issue that needs immediate attention.

5. When selecting patient problems for the 4-year-old child with nephrosis, what should be a priority for the nurse?

• A. Impaired body image
• B. Skin impairment
• C. Nutritional deficit
• D. Injury

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Skin impairment. Nephrosis is characterized by gross edema, making skin care a priority. Skin impairment can result from the edema and needs close monitoring and management. While nutritional deficit and injury are important considerations in patient care, they are not the priority when dealing with a child with nephrosis. Impaired body image is not typically a priority in the immediate care of a young child with nephrosis.

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