Nursing Elites

1. An overweight, young adult male who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for a hernia repair. He tells the nurse that he is feeling very weak and jittery. Which actions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)

• A. Check his fingerstick glucose
• B. Assess his skin temperature and moisture
• C. Measure his pulse and BP
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient is a young adult male with type 2 diabetes mellitus admitted for a hernia repair who is experiencing weakness and jitteriness. Checking his fingerstick glucose is crucial to assess his blood sugar levels, which can directly impact his symptoms. Assessing his skin temperature and moisture is important to evaluate his peripheral circulation and hydration status. Measuring his pulse and blood pressure helps in gauging his cardiovascular status. Therefore, all the actions mentioned in choices A, B, and C are appropriate for the nurse to implement in this situation to identify the underlying cause of the patient's symptoms. Choice D, 'All of the Above,' is the correct answer because all these actions are necessary for a comprehensive assessment of the patient's condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually as they each address different aspects of the patient's condition, and a holistic approach is needed to provide optimal care in this situation.

2. The healthcare provider writes several prescriptions for a client diagnosed with hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) that include a combination of broad-spectrum antibiotics. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer the first dose of antibiotics.
• B. Obtain a chest X-ray.
• C. Administer oxygen therapy.
• D. Collect blood specimens for culture prior to starting antibiotic therapy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Collecting blood specimens for culture prior to starting antibiotic therapy is the priority intervention in a client diagnosed with hospital-acquired pneumonia. This step is crucial to identify the causative organism responsible for the infection and ensure that the antibiotics prescribed are appropriate for effective treatment. Administering antibiotics before collecting cultures may interfere with the accuracy of culture results, potentially leading to inappropriate treatment. While administering the first dose of antibiotics is important, obtaining a chest X-ray and administering oxygen therapy are secondary interventions compared to identifying the causative organism through blood cultures.

3. A young female client with 7 children is having frequent morning headaches, dizziness, and blurred vision. Her BP is 168/104. The client reports that her husband recently lost his job and she is not sleeping well. After administering a STAT dose of an antihypertensive IV med, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Measure urine output hourly to assess for renal perfusion
• B. Request a prescription for pain medication
• C. Use an automated BP machine to monitor for hypotension
• D. Provide a quiet environment with low lighting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using an automated BP machine is crucial to continuously monitor for hypotension after administering an antihypertensive medication. This is essential to prevent a rapid drop in blood pressure that could lead to complications. Measuring urine output hourly to assess for renal perfusion is important but not the most immediate concern in this situation. Requesting pain medication is not relevant to the primary issue of managing blood pressure. Providing a quiet environment with low lighting may be beneficial for the client's overall well-being but is not as critical as monitoring for potential hypotension.

4. A client with rheumatoid arthritis has elevated serum rheumatoid factor. Which interpretation of this finding should the nurse make?

• A. Evidence of spread of the disease to the kidney.
• B. Confirmation of the autoimmune disease process.
• C. Representative of a decline in the client's condition.
• D. Indication of the onset of joint degeneration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct interpretation of elevated serum rheumatoid factor in a client with rheumatoid arthritis is confirmation of the autoimmune disease process. Rheumatoid factor is a marker for autoimmune activity, thus confirming the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Choice A is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not specifically indicate spread of the disease to the kidney. Choice C is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not always represent a decline in the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor is not an indication of the onset of joint degeneration, but rather points towards autoimmune activity.

5. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?

• A. Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms.
• B. Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.
• C. The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result.
• D. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.

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