Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of septicemia. Which assessment finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Increased urine output
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Increased heart rate
• D. Increased respiratory rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with septicemia, decreased blood pressure is a critical finding that suggests potential septic shock, a life-threatening condition. Septic shock requires immediate medical intervention to prevent further deterioration and organ dysfunction. Increased urine output (Choice A) may indicate adequate fluid resuscitation, which is a positive response. Increased heart rate (Choice C) and increased respiratory rate (Choice D) are common physiological responses to sepsis and do not necessarily indicate immediate life-threatening complications like decreased blood pressure does in septic shock.

2. A client reports increased pain following physical therapy. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask to assess the quality of the pain?

• A. Is the pain sharp or dull?
• B. Does the pain feel like burning or aching?
• C. Is the pain constant or intermittent?
• D. Does the pain feel like throbbing or stabbing?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing pain quality, asking if the pain is sharp or dull helps determine the nature of the pain. Sharp pain is often associated with acute conditions, while dull pain may indicate a chronic issue. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the quality of the pain in terms of sharpness or dullness.

3. A client with pneumonia has a decrease in oxygen saturation from 94% to 88% while ambulating. Based on these findings, which intervention should the LPN/LVN implement first?

• A. Assist the ambulating client back to the bed.
• B. Encourage the client to ambulate to resolve pneumonia.
• C. Obtain a prescription for portable oxygen while ambulating.
• D. Move the oximetry probe from the finger to the earlobe.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention is to assist the client back to bed. A decrease in oxygen saturation while ambulating indicates hypoxemia, and the immediate priority is to stabilize oxygen levels. Returning the client to bed allows for rest and decreased oxygen demand, potentially preventing further desaturation. Encouraging continued ambulation (Choice B) may worsen the hypoxemia by increasing oxygen demand. Obtaining portable oxygen (Choice C) is essential but should not delay addressing the low oxygen saturation. Moving the oximetry probe (Choice D) may not address the underlying cause of decreased oxygen saturation and should not be the first intervention.

4. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
• B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Verify tube placement every shift.
• D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.

5. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). Which statement should the LPN/LVN include when teaching the client about this medication?

• A. Do not take the medication with milk to avoid reduced absorption.
• B. Brush and floss your teeth regularly to prevent gum disease.
• C. Avoid taking antacids within 2 hours of the medication.
• D. Report any unusual bleeding or bruising to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid taking antacids within 2 hours of phenytoin. Antacids can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin, reducing its effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because phenytoin should not be taken with milk, as it may decrease its absorption. Choice B is unrelated to the medication and focuses on dental hygiene. Choice D is important but not directly related to phenytoin; it is more relevant to monitoring for adverse effects of the medication.

Similar Questions