Nursing Elites

1. A male client, admitted to the mental health unit for a somatoform disorder, becomes angry because he cannot have his pain medication. He demands that the nurse call the healthcare provider and threatens to leave the hospital. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Place the client in seclusion per unit guidelines
• B. Administer a PRN prescription for lorazepam (Ativan)
• C. Call security to help ensure staff and client safety
• D. Ask what other methods he uses to deal with pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize ensuring safety. When a client becomes aggressive and threatens to leave, calling security is crucial to help maintain a safe environment for both staff and the client. Placing the client in seclusion (choice A) is not the appropriate initial action as it may escalate the situation further. Administering lorazepam (choice B) should not be the first response to behavioral issues. Asking about other pain management methods (choice D) is not the immediate priority when safety is at risk.

2. The healthcare provider explains through an interpreter the risks and benefits of a scheduled surgical procedure to a non-English speaking female client. The client gives verbal consent, and the healthcare provider leaves, instructing the nurse to witness the signature on the consent form. The client and interpreter then speak together in the foreign language for an additional 2 minutes until the interpreter concludes, 'She says it is OK.' What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Clarify the client’s consent through the use of gestures and simple terms
• B. Have the interpreter co-sign the consent to validate the client's understanding
• C. Ask for a full explanation from the interpreter of the witnessed discussion
• D. Have the client sign the consent form and the nurse witness the signature

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Having the interpreter co-sign the consent form is the most appropriate action in this scenario. By having the interpreter co-sign, it ensures an additional layer of verification of the client's understanding and consent, which is crucial when language barriers exist. This step adds a level of confirmation to safeguard that the client's consent is both valid and well-informed. Option A is not sufficient as gestures and simple terms may not fully clarify the client's understanding, especially for complex medical procedures. Option C is unnecessary since the interpreter has already confirmed the client's consent. Option D does not involve the interpreter in validating the client's understanding, which is essential in this situation to ensure effective communication and comprehension between the client and the healthcare team.

3. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care for a client receiving acyclovir (Zovirax) IV for treatment of herpes zoster (shingles)?

• A. Initiate cardiac telemetry monitoring
• B. Maintain continuous pulse oximetry
• C. Perform capillary glucose measurements
• D. Monitor serum creatinine levels

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monitor serum creatinine levels. Acyclovir can lead to nephrotoxicity, making it essential to monitor kidney function through serum creatinine levels. While cardiac telemetry monitoring (choice A) and maintaining continuous pulse oximetry (choice B) are important in certain conditions, they are not directly related to acyclovir therapy for herpes zoster. Performing capillary glucose measurements (choice C) is not a priority when administering acyclovir for herpes zoster. Monitoring serum creatinine levels is crucial to detect any potential renal issues early, as the drug's nephrotoxic potential requires close monitoring of kidney function.

4. A client is admitted to the hospital with a serum sodium level of 128 mEq/L, distended neck veins, and lung crackles. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Increase the intake of salty foods
• B. Administer NaCl supplements
• C. Restrict oral fluid intake
• D. Hold the client's loop diuretic

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client presents with signs of fluid overload and hyponatremia. Restricting oral fluid intake is the appropriate intervention to manage fluid overload and correct hyponatremia. Increasing the intake of salty foods (Choice A) and administering NaCl supplements (Choice B) would exacerbate the sodium imbalance. Holding the client's loop diuretic (Choice D) is not directly related to addressing the fluid overload and hyponatremia.

5. After completion of mandatory counseling, the impaired nurse has asked nursing administration to allow return to work. When the nurse administrator approaches the charge nurse with the impaired nurse’s request, what action is best for the charge nurse to take?

• A. Ask to meet with the impaired nurse’s therapist before allowing the nurse back on the unit
• B. Meet with staff to assess their feelings about the impaired nurse’s return to the unit
• C. Since treatment is completed, assign the nurse to routine RN responsibilities
• D. Allow the impaired nurse to return to work and monitor medication administration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Allowing the impaired nurse to return to work with monitoring is the best course of action in this scenario. By monitoring the impaired nurse's medication administration, the charge nurse can ensure safe practice while supporting the nurse's reintegration into the work environment. Meeting with the therapist (Choice A) is not within the charge nurse's scope of responsibility and may violate the impaired nurse's privacy. Assessing staff feelings (Choice B) is important but should be done by leadership, not the charge nurse. Simply assigning routine duties (Choice C) may not address the need for monitoring and support required in this situation.

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