during a home visit a client with a history of angina reports frequent headaches the client recently started a new prescription for diltiazem a calciu
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank

1. During a home visit, a client with a history of angina reports frequent headaches. The client recently started a new prescription for diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to instruct the client to use acetaminophen for headaches. Acetaminophen is a suitable and safer option for managing headaches associated with calcium channel blockers like diltiazem. It is essential to avoid medications that can interact negatively with diltiazem, such as opioid analgesics. Discontinuing the medication abruptly without consulting the healthcare provider is not recommended. Monitoring for medication toxicity through blood samples is not typically indicated for managing headaches in this scenario.

2. In the emergency department, a child is admitted for accidental ingestion of a poison. The practical nurse (PN) should know that inducing vomiting is recommended for which child?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Inducing emesis is recommended for the child who ingested a large dose of acetaminophen elixir because this medication is hepatotoxic. Acetaminophen overdose can lead to severe liver damage, and prompt removal from the stomach can help reduce absorption and potential harm.

3. A client is prescribed metoprolol. The nurse should monitor for which common side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dizziness. Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, can lead to dizziness as a common side effect due to its mechanism of action in reducing heart rate and blood pressure. This effect can cause a sensation of lightheadedness or unsteadiness, particularly when standing up quickly. While fatigue, orthostatic hypotension, and headache are potential side effects of metoprolol, dizziness is commonly observed and should be closely monitored by the nurse to ensure patient safety.

4. A client who is newly diagnosed with erosive esophagitis secondary to GERD experiences symptoms after taking lansoprazole PO for one full week. Which actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to advise the client that healing from erosive esophagitis typically takes several weeks. Providing this information helps manage the client's expectations and anxiety about treatment effectiveness. It is not necessary to confirm medication timing, assess bowel sounds, or measure the apical pulse at this point. Since symptoms persist after one week of lansoprazole, it may not be appropriate to immediately escalate to a higher dose without further assessment or guidance from the healthcare provider. Auscultating bowel sounds and assessing the apical pulse are not relevant to the client's symptoms related to erosive esophagitis and GERD.

5. What should be obtained prior to starting olanzapine for a male client with bipolar disorder?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Baseline weight should be obtained prior to starting olanzapine in a male client with bipolar disorder to monitor for potential weight gain associated with the medication. Olanzapine is known to cause weight gain and monitoring the baseline weight can help in assessing any changes during treatment.

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