HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. During a home visit, a client with a history of angina reports frequent headaches. The client recently started a new prescription for diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Explain the importance of obtaining a blood sample promptly to test for medication toxicity
- B. Consult with the healthcare provider regarding the necessity of an opioid analgesic for pain relief
- C. Recommend the client to discontinue the medication until contacting the healthcare provider
- D. Instruct the client on the use of acetaminophen every 4-6 hours as needed for headaches
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to instruct the client to use acetaminophen for headaches. Acetaminophen is a suitable and safer option for managing headaches associated with calcium channel blockers like diltiazem. It is essential to avoid medications that can interact negatively with diltiazem, such as opioid analgesics. Discontinuing the medication abruptly without consulting the healthcare provider is not recommended. Monitoring for medication toxicity through blood samples is not typically indicated for managing headaches in this scenario.
2. A nurse in a primary care clinic is assessing a client who has a history of herpes zoster. Which of the following findings suggests that the client has postherpetic neuralgia?
- A. Linear clusters of vesicles on the right shoulder.
- B. Purulent drainage from both eyes.
- C. Decreased white blood cell count.
- D. Report of continued pain following resolution of the rash.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Report of continued pain following resolution of the rash. Postherpetic neuralgia is a complication of herpes zoster characterized by persistent pain that continues even after the rash has resolved. This pain can be severe and debilitating, affecting the quality of life of the individual. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because linear clusters of vesicles on the right shoulder would suggest an active herpes zoster outbreak, purulent drainage from both eyes would indicate an eye infection unrelated to postherpetic neuralgia, and a decreased white blood cell count is not typically associated with postherpetic neuralgia.
3. The healthcare provider changes a client’s medication prescription from IV to PO administration and doubles the dose. The nurse notes in the drug guide that the prescribed medication, when given orally, has a high first-pass effect and reduces bioavailability. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Continue administering the medication via the IV route.
- B. Give half the prescribed oral dose until consulting the provider.
- C. Administer the medication orally as prescribed.
- D. Consult with the pharmacist regarding the prescription change.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to consult with the pharmacist regarding the change in prescription. With the high first-pass effect of the medication when given orally, it reduces its bioavailability, meaning a dosage adjustment may be necessary to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Continuing to administer the medication via the IV route (choice A) is not appropriate as the prescription has been changed to oral administration. Giving half the prescribed oral dose until consulting the provider (choice B) is not recommended without proper guidance, which should come from consulting with the pharmacist. Simply administering the medication orally as prescribed (choice C) without addressing the potential issue of reduced bioavailability may lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes.
4. The nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a panic attack. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Stay with the client and remain calm.
- B. Encourage the client to express their feelings.
- C. Teach the client deep-breathing exercises.
- D. Administer prescribed anti-anxiety medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority intervention is to stay with the client and remain calm (A). This provides immediate support and reassurance. Encouraging the client to express their feelings (B) and teaching deep-breathing exercises (C) are important but should come after ensuring the client's immediate safety and comfort. Administering medication (D) might be necessary, but the nurse should first focus on providing a calming presence to help the client feel safe and supported during the panic attack.
5. A client with a history of hypertension is receiving enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hypercalcemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia as a side effect. ACE inhibitors can cause potassium retention by inhibiting aldosterone secretion, which may result in elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not typically associated with enalapril use. Hypercalcemia (choice C) is also not a common side effect of enalapril. Hypokalemia (choice D) is the opposite of what is expected with enalapril, as it tends to cause potassium retention.