during a home visit a client with a history of angina reports frequent headaches the client recently started a new prescription for diltiazem a calciu
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank

1. During a home visit, a client with a history of angina reports frequent headaches. The client recently started a new prescription for diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to instruct the client to use acetaminophen for headaches. Acetaminophen is a suitable and safer option for managing headaches associated with calcium channel blockers like diltiazem. It is essential to avoid medications that can interact negatively with diltiazem, such as opioid analgesics. Discontinuing the medication abruptly without consulting the healthcare provider is not recommended. Monitoring for medication toxicity through blood samples is not typically indicated for managing headaches in this scenario.

2. A client is prescribed an antacid for the treatment of peptic ulcer disease. What is the action of this medication that is effective in treating the client's ulcer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Antacids work by neutralizing gastric acids and maintaining a gastric pH of 3.5 or above. This pH level is crucial to prevent the activation of pepsinogen, a precursor to pepsin, which can further damage the ulcer. Choice A is incorrect because antacids do not directly decrease the production of gastric secretions; they neutralize existing acid. Choice B is incorrect as antacids do not form a physical barrier over the ulcer but rather neutralize the acid around it. Choice D is also incorrect as antacids do not affect gastric motor activity but focus on reducing acidity in the stomach.

3. How should the healthcare provider schedule the administering of propylthiouracil (PTU)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering iodine one hour before PTU is crucial to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness of PTU. This timing helps optimize the therapeutic benefits of PTU by allowing it to be absorbed efficiently without interference from iodine, ultimately leading to better treatment outcomes for the patient. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because offering both drugs together with a meal, giving parental dose once every 24 hours, and scheduling both medications at bedtime do not address the specific timing requirement of administering iodine before PTU for optimal absorption.

4. What action should the nurse implement for a female client taking the bisphosphonate medication ibandronate for osteoporosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ensuring correct administration of bisphosphonates, like ibandronate, is essential to maximize effectiveness and minimize potential side effects. By asking the client to describe how she takes the medication, the nurse can assess the client's understanding and adherence to the prescribed regimen, ultimately promoting optimal therapeutic outcomes.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glipizide. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed glipizide, a sulfonylurea used to lower blood sugar levels, is to take the medication with meals. Taking it with meals helps to minimize the risk of hypoglycemia by ensuring a more balanced effect on blood glucose levels throughout the day. It is important for the client to follow this instruction to maintain stable blood sugar levels and reduce the likelihood of experiencing low blood sugar (hypoglycemia) episodes. Choice B is incorrect because there are no specific contraindications between glipizide and alcohol. Choice C is incorrect as glipizide should not be taken on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect as while it is important to report signs of hypoglycemia, the primary focus should be on preventing hypoglycemia by taking the medication with meals.

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