HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. During a home visit, a client with a history of angina reports frequent headaches. The client recently started a new prescription for diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Explain the importance of obtaining a blood sample promptly to test for medication toxicity
- B. Consult with the healthcare provider regarding the necessity of an opioid analgesic for pain relief
- C. Recommend the client to discontinue the medication until contacting the healthcare provider
- D. Instruct the client on the use of acetaminophen every 4-6 hours as needed for headaches
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to instruct the client to use acetaminophen for headaches. Acetaminophen is a suitable and safer option for managing headaches associated with calcium channel blockers like diltiazem. It is essential to avoid medications that can interact negatively with diltiazem, such as opioid analgesics. Discontinuing the medication abruptly without consulting the healthcare provider is not recommended. Monitoring for medication toxicity through blood samples is not typically indicated for managing headaches in this scenario.
2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- B. Take this medication with food to decrease gastrointestinal upset.
- C. Avoid sunlight while taking this medication.
- D. Report any signs of infection to the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed methotrexate is to avoid sunlight while taking this medication. Methotrexate can increase sensitivity to sunlight, leading to skin reactions. It is essential for clients to limit sun exposure and use protective measures like sunscreen and clothing coverage to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because avoiding alcohol, taking with food, and reporting signs of infection are not specific instructions related to methotrexate therapy.
3. A client has been diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma. The healthcare provider prescribes pilocarpine 1% eye drops. The nurse explains that which action of this drug makes it a useful treatment for the client's condition?
- A. The ciliary muscle contracts, increasing the outflow of aqueous humor in the eye.
- B. Ciliary muscles are paralyzed to decrease accommodation.
- C. Bilateral mydriasis with cycloplegia is accomplished.
- D. The production of aqueous humor in the eyes is decreased.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pilocarpine, a cholinergic agent, stimulates the ciliary muscle to contract, which opens the trabecular meshwork and facilitates the outflow of aqueous humor, reducing intraocular pressure. This mechanism helps in managing open-angle glaucoma by improving drainage and lowering pressure within the eye. Choice A is correct because the contraction of the ciliary muscle increases the outflow of aqueous humor, aiding in the treatment of open-angle glaucoma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the mechanism of action of pilocarpine in treating glaucoma.
4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Increased risk of bleeding
- B. Decreased risk of bleeding
- C. Increased risk of infection
- D. Decreased risk of infection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot. Therefore, a potential adverse effect of warfarin is an increased risk of bleeding. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, nosebleeds, or blood in the urine or stool. Monitoring for these signs is essential to prevent serious complications associated with excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. The primary concern with warfarin therapy is the potential for bleeding complications, so close monitoring for signs of bleeding is essential.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Weight gain
- C. Nausea
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct potential adverse effect to monitor for when a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide is hypoglycemia. Glyburide can lead to hypoglycemia, particularly in individuals who do not eat regularly, by stimulating the release of insulin from the pancreas, which can lower blood sugar levels. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as confusion, sweating, and palpitations, to prevent complications and provide timely interventions.
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