HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. A client with diabetes mellitus is prescribed insulin glargine. What information should the practical nurse (PN) provide to the client about this medication?
- A. Administer the insulin at mealtimes.
- B. Do not mix this insulin with other insulins.
- C. Shake the vial well before use.
- D. Store the insulin in the freezer.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that should not be mixed with other insulins in the same syringe. Mixing it with other insulins can alter its pharmacokinetics and effectiveness. Insulin glargine is usually administered at the same time each day, often at bedtime, to provide a consistent basal level of insulin over 24 hours.
2. A practical nurse (PN) is reviewing teaching with the client and/or significant others about the concurrent use of benztropine and olanzapine to manage psychotic behavior. What information should the PN reinforce?
- A. Benztropine will reduce olanzapine's side effect of urinary retention.
- B. Benztropine potentiates the effect of olanzapine.
- C. Benztropine is used to control the side effects of olanzapine.
- D. The combined effect of these drugs will modify psychotic behavior.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because benztropine, an anticholinergic drug, is used to control extrapyramidal symptoms associated with olanzapine use. Choice A is incorrect because benztropine does not directly reduce olanzapine's side effect of urinary retention. Choice B is incorrect as benztropine does not potentiate the effect of olanzapine; its main role is to counteract extrapyramidal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because the primary purpose of using benztropine alongside olanzapine is to manage side effects, not specifically to modify psychotic behavior.
3. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed apixaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Increased risk of bleeding
- B. Decreased risk of bleeding
- C. Increased risk of infection
- D. Decreased risk of infection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Apixaban is an anticoagulant medication that works by preventing blood clots. While this is beneficial for individuals with a history of deep vein thrombosis, it also increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or blood in the urine or stool. Monitoring for bleeding is crucial to ensure the client's safety and to take appropriate actions if necessary. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because apixaban does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. The primary concern when administering apixaban is monitoring for potential bleeding complications.
4. A client with hypertension is prescribed clonidine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Dizziness
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Clonidine, a medication used to treat hypertension, can cause a lowering of blood pressure leading to hypotension as a potential side effect. Monitoring for hypotension is essential to prevent complications such as dizziness, fainting, or falls. Option B, Tachycardia, is incorrect as clonidine typically causes bradycardia or a decreased heart rate. Option C, Dizziness, can occur due to hypotension caused by clonidine. Option D, Hyperglycemia, is not a common side effect associated with clonidine use.
5. A client receiving enalapril reports a persistent dry cough. The nurse should explain that this side effect is related to which medication action?
- A. It reduces the production of angiotensin II.
- B. It increases the production of angiotensin II.
- C. It causes increased production of bradykinin.
- D. It increases the production of aldosterone.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to increased levels of bradykinin. The accumulation of bradykinin is responsible for the persistent dry cough associated with ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not directly affect the production of angiotensin II or aldosterone. Instead, it primarily impacts the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to bradykinin accumulation.
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