HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed carbamazepine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Agranulocytosis
- B. Hair loss
- C. Liver toxicity
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Carbamazepine is associated with the potential adverse effect of agranulocytosis, a serious condition characterized by a low white blood cell count. Monitoring white blood cell counts regularly is crucial to detect this adverse effect early and prevent complications.
2. A client with hypertension is prescribed doxazosin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Hypertension
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Doxazosin is an alpha-blocker medication commonly used to treat hypertension. One of the potential side effects of doxazosin is causing a sudden drop in blood pressure, leading to hypotension. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs and symptoms of low blood pressure when initiating or adjusting the dose of doxazosin.
3. A client diagnosed with a herniated disc is prescribed hydrocodone/acetaminophen 10 mg/300 mg prn every 4 to 6 hours. As the practical nurse (PN) enters the client's room to administer the requested medication, the client is seen talking and laughing with visiting family. What action should the PN take?
- A. Hold the pain medication until after the visitors leave.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's drug-seeking behavior.
- C. Administer analgesia as requested by the client.
- D. Inform the client that the medication is not needed based on their behavior.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the PN in this situation is to administer the analgesia as requested by the client. Pain management is based on the client's self-report of pain, which is the most reliable indicator of pain intensity. Analgesics should be given promptly when pain occurs and before it worsens. Following the administration of medication, the PN should discuss the situation with the charge nurse for further guidance or assessment.
4. Escitalopram is prescribed for a 16-year-old adolescent client who is clinically depressed. Five days later, the parent tells the practical nurse (PN) that the drug is not working because their child is not feeling any better. Which explanation should the PN provide?
- A. It takes 1 to 4 weeks for antidepressant medications to become effective.
- B. The dosage may need to be increased; I will contact your health care provider.
- C. Depression is difficult to treat with drugs alone. Therapy sessions would enhance their effectiveness.
- D. Based on your child's response to this drug, the health care provider is reviewing your medication regimen.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Antidepressant medications typically require 1 to 4 weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect. It is crucial to educate the family that during the initial week of treatment, the child may experience heightened anxiety. Therefore, it is important to wait for the medication to take its full course before assessing its effectiveness.
5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed apixaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Increased risk of bleeding
- B. Decreased risk of bleeding
- C. Increased risk of infection
- D. Decreased risk of infection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Apixaban is an anticoagulant medication that works by preventing blood clots. While this is beneficial for individuals with a history of deep vein thrombosis, it also increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or blood in the urine or stool. Monitoring for bleeding is crucial to ensure the client's safety and to take appropriate actions if necessary. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because apixaban does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. The primary concern when administering apixaban is monitoring for potential bleeding complications.
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